CheckPoint 156-215.81 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CheckPoint 156-215.81 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 351:

  Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

  A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
  B. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
  C. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
  D. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)
  A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The answer is A because Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing between Security Gateways. Policy Decision Point (PDP) is the Security Gateway that collects identities from various sources and shares them with other gateways. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) is the Security Gateway that enforces the policy based on the identities received from the PDP12 References: Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide

• Question 352:

  What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

  A. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
  B. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction
  C. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
  D. IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing
  C. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Threat Prevention is a comprehensive solution that protects networks from malicious attacks by using multiple security blades, such as Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, IPS, Threat Emulation, and Threat Extraction. These are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is a blade that detects and prevents network attacks by using signatures and behavioral patterns. Anti-Bot is a blade that detects and blocks botnet communications by using reputation services and heuristics. Anti-Virus is a blade that scans files and web content for malware by using signatures and emulation. Threat Emulation is a blade that analyzes suspicious files in a sandbox environment and blocks malicious files from entering the network. Threat Extraction is a blade that removes exploitable content from files and delivers clean files to users. References: Check Point R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide

• Question 353:

  Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

  A. AES-GCM-256
  B. AES-CBC-256
  C. AES-GCM-128
  B. AES-CBC-256

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The answer is B because AES-CBC-256 is not a supported encryption algorithm for IPsec Security Associations (Phase 2) in R81. The supported encryption algorithms are AES-GCM-128, AES-GCM-256, AES-CBC-128, 3DES, and NULL3 References: Check Point R81 VPN Administration Guide

• Question 354:

  Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

  A. The firewall topologies
  B. NAT Rules
  C. The Rule Base
  D. The VPN Domains
  D. The VPN Domains

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The VPN Domains configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear. The VPN Domain is the set of hosts and networks that are allowed to communicate securely with the gateway. The firewall topologies, NAT rules, and the rule base do not directly affect the VPN encryption decision. References: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide, CCSA/CCSE Exam Tips and Content - R80.X vs. R81.X Check Point CheckMates

• Question 355:

  Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

  A. Manage and Command Line
  B. Logs and Monitor
  C. Security Policies
  D. Gateway and Servers
  A. Manage and Command Line

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Manage and Command Line is not a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole, as it does not exist in the interface. The image shows the navigation toolbar of the R80 SmartConsole, which has four tabs: Security Policies, Logs and Monitor, Gateways and Servers, and Manage and Settings. The Command Line Interface button is located in the system information area, not in the navigation toolbar. References: Application Control and URL Filtering - Check Point Software

  

• Question 356:

  Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

  

  What is the most likely reason?

  A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
  B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.
  C. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
  D. Authentication failed because Vanessa's username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
  B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The most likely reason for Vanessa's authentication failure is that she is using the wrong details for SmartConsole. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. She needs to use the credentials that were defined during the initial configuration of the Security Management Server, or the ones that were assigned to her by the administrator. The other options are not valid reasons for this error. References: SmartConsole Login,

• Question 357:

  Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

  A. Password
  B. Certificate
  C. Token
  D. Pre-shared secret
  B. Certificate

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Certificate is the most secure means of authentication among the given options. A certificate is a digital document that contains information about the identity of a user or a device, and is signed by a trusted authority. A certificate can be used to prove the identity of a user or a device without revealing any sensitive information, such as passwords or tokens. Password, token, and pre-shared secret are less secure means of authentication because they can be easily compromised, stolen, or guessed by attackers. References: Secure User Authentication Methods - freeCodeCamp.org, What is the Most Secure Authentication Method for Your Organization ...

• Question 358:

  Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

  A. Manage and Settings
  B. Security Policies
  C. Gateway and Servers
  D. Logs and Monitor
  D. Logs and Monitor

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Logs and Monitor is the SmartConsole tab that is used to monitor network and security performance. This tab allows you to view and analyze logs and events from various sources, such as Security Gateways, Security Management Servers, and SmartEvent Servers. You can also use this tab to generate reports and troubleshoot issues. References: [Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide R80.20]

• Question 359:

  Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

  A. Location
  B. Payload
  C. Destination
  D. Identity
  D. Identity

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  Explanation/Reference:

  RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from requests generated by the accounting client. RADIUS Accounting is a feature that allows tracking and measuring resource usage of network services by users. The accounting client, which is usually a network access server (NAS), sends accounting requests to a RADIUS server with information about user sessions, such as start and stop times, bytes transmitted and received, IP addresses, etc. The RADIUS server records this information in a database for billing, auditing, or reporting purposes. One of the mandatory attributes that the accounting client must include in every accounting request is the User-Name attribute, which identifies the user who is accessing the network service.

• Question 360:

  How do you manage Gaia?

  A. Through CLI and WebUI
  B. Through CLI only
  C. Through SmartDashboard only
  D. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard
  D. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Gaia can be managed through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard, p. 17-18. CLI is a command-line interface that allows administrators to configure and monitor Gaia using commands and scripts. WebUI is a web-based interface that allows administrators to configure and monitor Gaia using a browser. SmartDashboard is a graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage security policies and objects for Gaia devices. , [Check Point Gaia Administration Guide R81], [Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81]