NCLEX NCLEX-RN Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

NCLEX NCLEX-RN Online Questions & Answers

• Question 321:

  At 32 weeks' gestation, a client is scheduled for a fetal activity test (nonstress test). She calls the clinic and asks the RN, "How do I prepare for the test I am scheduled for?" The RN will most likely inform her of the following instructions to help prepare her for the test:

  A. "You need to know that an IV is always started before the test."
  B. "You will need to drink 6 to 8 glasses of water to fill your bladder."
  C. "Do not eat any food or drink any liquids before the test is started."
  D. "You will have to remain as still as you possibly can."
  D. "You will have to remain as still as you possibly can."

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  (A) An IV line is not started in a nonstress test, because this test is used as an indicator of fetal well-being. This test measures fetal activity and heart rate acceleration. (B) The bladder does not have to be full prior to this test. It is not a sonogram test where a full bladder enables other structures to be scanned. (C) It has been proved that eating or drinking liquids prior to the test can assist in increasing fetal activity. (D) Any maternal activity will interfere with the results of the test.

• Question 322:

  A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to:

  A. Gently pull the infant away
  B. Withdraw the breast from the infant's mouth
  C. Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouth
  D. Insert a clean finger into the baby's mouth beside the nipple
  D. Insert a clean finger into the baby's mouth beside the nipple

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  (A) In pulling the infant away from the breast without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (B) In pulling the breast away from the infant without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (C) Compressing the maternal tissue does not break the suction of the infant on the breast and can cause nipple trauma. (D) By inserting a finger into the infant's mouth beside the nipple, the lactating mother can break the suction and the nipple can be removed without trauma.

• Question 323:

  The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an electrolyte imbalance and identifies a nursing diagnosis of decreased physical mobility. Which alteration is most the etiology?

  A. Hypernatremia
  B. Hypocalcemia
  C. Hypokalemia
  D. Hypomagnesemia
  C. Hypokalemia

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  (A) A deficit in sodium concentration results in muscular weakness and lethargy. (B) Muscle fatigue and hypotonia are caused by hypercalcemia. (C) Muscle weakness and fatigue are classic signs of hypokalemia. (D) Hypermagnesemia can cause muscle weakness, paralysis, and coma.

• Question 324:

  The nurse provides a male client with diet teaching so that he can help prevent constipation in the future. Which food choices indicate that this teaching has been understood?

  A. Omelette and hash browns
  B. Pancakes and syrup
  C. Bagel with cream cheese
  D. Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half
  D. Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half

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  (A) Eggs and hash browns do not provide much fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation. (B) Pancakes and syrup also have little fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation. (C) Bagel and cream cheese do not provide intestinal bulk. (D) A combination of oatmeal and fresh fruit will provide fiber and intestinal bulk.

• Question 325:

  A client is diagnosed with organic brain disorder. The nursing care should include:

  A. Organized, safe environment
  B. Long, extended family visits
  C. Detailed explanations of procedures
  D. Challenging educational programs
  A. Organized, safe environment

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  (A)

  A priority nursing goal is attending to the client's safety and well-being. Reorient frequently, remove dangerous objects, and maintain consistent environment. (B) Short, frequent visits are recommended to avoid overstimulation and fatigue.

  (C)

  Short, concise, simple explanations are easier to understand. (D) Mental capability and attention span deficits make learning difficult and frustrating.

• Question 326:

  The physician has prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan). When assessing the client, the nurse would expect to find which of the following responses?

  A. Increase in gastric secretions
  B. Increase in peristalsis
  C. Disorientation
  D. Drowsiness
  B. Increase in peristalsis

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  (A) Metoclopramide does not stimulate gastric secretions. (B) This response is expected with metoclopramide, in addition to increasing gastric emptying. (C) Disorientation is a symptom of metoclopramide overdose. The drug should be discontinued. (D) Drowsiness is a symptom of metoclopramide overdose and the drug should be discontinued.

• Question 327:

  A successful executive left her job and became a housewife after her marriage to a plastic surgeon. She started doing volunteer work for a charity organization. She developed pain in her legs that advanced to the point of paralysis. Her physicians can find no organic basis for the paralysis. The client's behavior can be described as:

  A. Housework phobia
  B. Malingering
  C. Conversion reaction
  D. Agoraphobia
  C. Conversion reaction

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  (A) A typical phobia does not result in physical symptoms (i.e., paralysis). (B) Malingering is pretending to be ill. This person has a true paralysis. (C) A conversion reaction is a physical expression of an emotional conflict. It has no organic basis. (D) Agoraphobia is fear of public places.

• Question 328:

  The nurse who is caring for a client with pneumonia assesses that the client has become increasingly irritable and restless. The nurse realizes that this is a result of:

  A. Prolonged bed rest
  B. The client's maintaining a semi-Fowler position
  C. Cerebral hypoxia
  D. IV fluids of 2.5? liters in 24 hours
  C. Cerebral hypoxia

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  (A) Maintaining bed rest helps to decrease the O2 needs of the tissues, which decreases dyspnea and workload on the respiratory system. (B) The semi-Fowler or high-Fowler position is necessary to aid in lessening pressure on the diaphragm from the abdominal organs, which facilitates comfort and easier breathing patterns. (C) Cerebral hypoxia causes the client with pneumonia to be increasingly irritable and restless and results from the client not obtaining enough O2 to meet metabolic needs. (D) Proper hydration facilitates liquefaction of mucus trapped in the bronchioles and alveoli and enhances expectoration. Unless contraindicated, a reasonable amount of IV fluids to be administered is at least 2.5? liters in a 24-hour period.

• Question 329:

  The nurse begins morning assessment on a male client and notices that she is unable to palpate either of his dorsalis pedis pulses in his feet. What is the first nursing action after assessing this finding?

  A. Palpate these pulses again in 15 minutes.
  B. Use a Doppler to determine presence and strength of these pulses.
  C. Document the finding that the pulses are not palpable.
  D. Call the physician and notify the physician of this finding.
  B. Use a Doppler to determine presence and strength of these pulses.

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  (A)

  Palpating these pulses again in 15 minutes may only result in the same findings. (B) Any time during an assessment that the nurse is unable to palpate pulses, the nurse should then obtain a Doppler and assess for presence or absence of the pulse and pulse strength, if a pulse is present. (C) Pulses may be present and assessed through use of a Doppler. Absence of palpable pulses does not indicate absence of blood flow unless pulses cannot be located with a Doppler.

  (D)

  The nurse would only call the physician after determining that the pulses are absent by both palpation and Doppler.

• Question 330:

  A male client is considering having laser abdominal surgery and asks the nurse if there is any advantage in having this type of surgery? The nurse will respond based on the knowledge that laser surgery:

  A. Has a smaller postoperative infection rate than routine surgery
  B. Will eliminate the need for preoperative sedation
  C. Will result in less operating time
  D. Generally eliminates problems with complications
  B. Will eliminate the need for preoperative sedation

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  (A) A lower postoperative infection has been documented as a result of laser therapy versus routine surgery. (B) Clients will still need preoperative sedation to facilitate anxiety reduction. (C) Operating time may actually increase in some laser surgeries. (D) The client must still be observed for postoperative complications.