Exam Details

  • Exam Code
    :CAS-002
  • Exam Name
    :CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)
  • Certification
    :CompTIA Certifications
  • Vendor
    :CompTIA
  • Total Questions
    :733 Q&As
  • Last Updated
    :Jan 22, 2024

CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CAS-002 Questions & Answers

  • Question 581:

    SAML entities can operate in a variety of different roles. Valid SAML roles include which of the following?

    A. Attribute authority and certificate authority

    B. Certificate authority and attribute requestor

    C. Identity provider and service provider

    D. Service provider and administrator

  • Question 582:

    A financial institution has decided to purchase a very expensive resource management system and has selected the product and vendor. The vendor is experiencing some minor, but public, legal issues. Senior management has some concerns on maintaining this system should the vendor go out of business. Which of the following should the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recommend to BEST limit exposure?

    A. Include a source code escrow clause in the contract for this system.

    B. Require proof-of-insurance by the vendor in the RFP for this system.

    C. Include a penalty clause in the contract for this system.

    D. Require on-going maintenance as part of the SLA for this system.

  • Question 583:

    A small company has a network with 37 workstations, 3 printers, a 48 port switch, an enterprise class router, and a firewall at the boundary to the ISP. The workstations have the latest patches and all have up- to-date anti-virus software. User authentication is a two-factor system with fingerprint scanners and passwords. Sensitive data on each workstation is encrypted. The network is configured to use IPv4 and is a standard Ethernet network. The network also has a captive portal based wireless hot-spot to accommodate visitors. Which of the following is a problem with the security posture of this company?

    A. No effective controls in place

    B. No transport security controls are implemented

    C. Insufficient user authentication controls are implemented

    D. IPv6 is not incorporated in the network

  • Question 584:

    A newly-appointed risk management director for the IT department at Company XYZ, a major pharmaceutical manufacturer, needs to conduct a risk analysis regarding a new system which the developers plan to bring on-line in three weeks. The director begins by reviewing the thorough and well- written report from the independent contractor who performed a security assessment of the system. The report details what seems to be a manageable volume of infrequently exploited security vulnerabilities. The likelihood of a malicious attacker exploiting one of the vulnerabilities is low; however, the director still has some reservations about approving the system because of which of the following?

    A. The resulting impact of even one attack being realized might cripple the company financially.

    B. Government health care regulations for the pharmaceutical industry prevent the director from approving a system with vulnerabilities.

    C. The director is new and is being rushed to approve a project before an adequate assessment has been performed.

    D. The director should be uncomfortable accepting any security vulnerabilities and should find time to correct them before the system is deployed.

  • Question 585:

    A security manager at Company ABC, needs to perform a risk assessment of a new mobile device which the Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to immediately deploy to all employees in the company. The product is commercially available, runs a popular mobile operating system, and can connect to IPv6 networks wirelessly. The model the CIO wants to procure also includes the upgraded 160GB solid state hard drive. The producer of the device will not reveal exact numbers but experts estimate that over 73 million of the devices have been sold worldwide. Which of the following is the BEST list of factors the security manager should consider while performing a risk assessment?

    A. Ability to remotely wipe the devices, apply security controls remotely, and encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and correcting security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.

    B. Ability to remotely administer the devices, apply security controls remotely, and remove the SSD; the track record of the vendor in securely implementing IPv6 with IPSec; predicted costs associated with securing the devices.

    C. Ability to remotely monitor the devices, remove security controls remotely, and decrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and preventing security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, destroying and tracking the devices.

    D. Ability to remotely sanitize the devices, apply security controls locally, encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in adapting the open source operating system to their platform; predicted costs associated with inventory management, maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.

  • Question 586:

    A security administrator has been conducting a security assessment of Company XYZ for the past two weeks. All of the penetration tests and other assessments have revealed zero flaws in the systems at Company XYZ. However, Company XYZ reports that it has been the victim of numerous security incidents in the past six months. In each of these incidents, the criminals have managed to exfiltrate large volumes of data from the secure servers at the company. Which of the following techniques should the investigation team consider in the next phase of their assessment in hopes of uncovering the attack vector the criminals used?

    A. Vulnerability assessment

    B. Code review

    C. Social engineering

    D. Reverse engineering

  • Question 587:

    A number of security incidents have been reported involving mobile web-based code developed by a consulting company. Performing a root cause analysis, the security administrator of the consulting company discovers that the problem is a simple programming error that results in extra information being loaded into the memory when the proper format is selected by the user. After repeating the process several times, the security administrator is able to execute unintentional instructions through this method. Which of the following BEST describes the problem that is occurring, a good mitigation technique to use to prevent future occurrences, and why it a security concern?

    A. Problem: Cross-site scripting Mitigation Technique. Input validation Security Concern: Decreases the company's profits and cross-site scripting can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of network connections or interrupt the availability of the network.

    B. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability buffer overflows and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality/availability of the data.

    C. Problem: SQL injection Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability SQL injection and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of data or interrupt the availability of a system.

    D. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Output validation Security Concern: Exposing the company to public scrutiny buffer overflows can enable malicious actors to interrupt the availability of a system.

  • Question 588:

    A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed standards for:

    A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical security problems.

    B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing code standards.

    C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems.

    D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and documenting extra requirements.

  • Question 589:

    After implementing port security, restricting all network traffic into and out of a network, migrating to IPv6, installing NIDS, firewalls, spam and application filters, a security administer is convinced that the network is secure. The administrator now focuses on securing the hosts on the network, starting with the servers.

    Which of the following is the MOST complete list of end-point security software the administrator could plan to implement?

    A. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, two- factor authentication.

    B. Anti-virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based IDS, firewall, and strong three- factor authentication.

    C. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and biometric authentication.

    D. Anti-malware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, three-factor authentication.

  • Question 590:

    A security administrator needs a secure computing solution to use for all of the company's security audit log storage, and to act as a central server to execute security functions from. Which of the following is the BEST option for the server in this scenario?

    A. A hardened Red Hat Enterprise Linux implementation running a software firewall

    B. Windows 7 with a secure domain policy and smartcard based authentication

    C. A hardened bastion host with a permit all policy implemented in a software firewall

    D. Solaris 10 with trusted extensions or SE Linux with a trusted policy

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