CAS-002 Exam Details

  • Exam Code
    :CAS-002
  • Exam Name
    :CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)
  • Certification
    :CompTIA Certifications
  • Vendor
    :CompTIA
  • Total Questions
    :733 Q&As
  • Last Updated
    :Jan 22, 2024

CompTIA CAS-002 Online Questions & Answers

  • Question 431:

    An administrator at a small company replaces servers whenever budget money becomes available. Over the past several years the company has acquired and still uses 20 servers and 50 desktops from five different computer manufacturers. Which of the following are management challenges and risks associated with this style of technology lifecycle management?

    A. Decreased security posture, decommission of outdated hardware, inability to centrally manage, and performance bottlenecks on old hardware.
    B. Increased mean time to failure rate of legacy servers, OS variances, patch availability, and ability to restore to dissimilar hardware.
    C. OS end-of-support issues, ability to backup data, hardware parts availability, and firmware update availability and management.
    D. Inability to use virtualization, trusted OS complexities, and multiple patch versions based on OS dependency.

  • Question 432:

    A security engineer is implementing a new solution designed to process e-business transactions and record them in a corporate audit database. The project has multiple technical stakeholders. The database team controls the physical database resources, the internal audit division controls the audit records in the database, the web hosting team is responsible for implementing the website front end and shopping cart application, and the accounting department is responsible for processing the transaction and interfacing with the payment processor. As the solution owner, the security engineer is responsible for ensuring which of the following?

    A. Ensure the process functions in a secure manner from customer input to audit review.
    B. Security solutions result in zero additional processing latency.
    C. Ensure the process of storing audit records is in compliance with applicable laws.
    D. Web transactions are conducted in a secure network channel.

  • Question 433:

    A popular commercial virtualization platform allows for the creation of virtual hardware. To virtual machines, this virtual hardware is indistinguishable from real hardware. By implementing virtualized TPMs, which of the following trusted system concepts can be implemented?

    A. Software-based root of trust
    B. Continuous chain of trust
    C. Chain of trust with a hardware root of trust
    D. Software-based trust anchor with no root of trust

  • Question 434:

    In an effort to reduce internal email administration costs, a company is determining whether to outsource its email to a managed service provider that provides email, spam, and malware protection. The security manager is asked to provide input regarding any security implications of this change.

    Which of the following BEST addresses risks associated with disclosure of intellectual property?

    A. Require the managed service provider to implement additional data separation.
    B. Require encrypted communications when accessing email.
    C. Enable data loss protection to minimize emailing PII and confidential data.
    D. Establish an acceptable use policy and incident response policy.

  • Question 435:

    A Physical Security Manager is ready to replace all 50 analog surveillance cameras with IP cameras with built-in web management. The Security Manager has several security guard desks on different networks that must be able to view the cameras without unauthorized people viewing the video as well. The selected IP camera vendor does not have the ability to authenticate users at the camera level. Which of the following should the Security Manager suggest to BEST secure this environment?

    A. Create an IP camera network and deploy NIPS to prevent unauthorized access.
    B. Create an IP camera network and only allow SSL access to the cameras.
    C. Create an IP camera network and deploy a proxy to authenticate users prior to accessing the cameras.
    D. Create an IP camera network and restrict access to cameras from a single management host.

  • Question 436:

    A web developer is responsible for a simple web application that books holiday accommodations. The front-facing web server offers an HTML form, which asks for a user's age. This input gets placed into a signed integer variable and is then checked to ensure that the user is in the adult age range.

    Users have reported that the website is not functioning correctly. The web developer has inspected log files and sees that a very large number (in the billions) was submitted just before the issue started occurring. Which of the following is the MOST likely situation that has occurred?

    A. The age variable stored the large number and filled up disk space which stopped the application from continuing to function. Improper error handling prevented the application from recovering.
    B. The age variable has had an integer overflow and was assigned a very small negative number which led to unpredictable application behavior. Improper error handling prevented the application from recovering.
    C. Computers are able to store numbers well above "billions" in size. Therefore, the website issues are not related to the large number being input.
    D. The application has crashed because a very large integer has lead to a "divide by zero". Improper error handling prevented the application from recovering.

  • Question 437:

    A Security Administrator has some concerns about the confidentiality of data when using SOAP. Which of the following BEST describes the Security Administrator's concerns?

    A. The SOAP header is not encrypted and allows intermediaries to view the header data. The body can be partially or completely encrypted.
    B. The SOAP protocol supports weak hashing of header information. As a result the header and body can easily be deciphered by brute force tools.
    C. The SOAP protocol can be easily tampered with, even though the header is encrypted.
    D. The SOAP protocol does not support body or header encryption which allows assertions to be viewed in clear text by intermediaries.

  • Question 438:

    A high-tech company dealing with sensitive data seized the mobile device of an employee suspected of leaking company secrets to a competitive organization. Which of the following is the BEST order for mobile phone evidence extraction?

    A. Device isolation, evidence intake, device identification, data processing, verification of data accuracy, documentation, reporting, presentation and archival.
    B. Evidence intake, device identification, preparation to identify the necessary tools, device isolation, data processing, verification of data accuracy, documentation, reporting, presentation and archival.
    C. Evidence log, device isolation ,device identification, preparation to identify the necessary tools, data processing, verification of data accuracy, presentation and archival.
    D. Device identification, evidence log, preparation to identify the necessary tools, data processing, verification of data accuracy, device isolation, documentation, reporting, presentation and archival.

  • Question 439:

    The Chief Information Officer (CIO) of Company XYZ has returned from a large IT conference where one of the topics was defending against zero day attacks - specifically deploying third party patches to vulnerable software. Two months prior, the majority of the company systems were compromised because of a zero day exploit. Due to budget constraints the company only has operational systems. The CIO wants the Security Manager to research the use of these patches. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with the use of a third party patch to mitigate another un-patched vulnerability?

    A. The company does not have an adequate test environment to validate the impact of the third party patch, introducing unknown risks.
    B. The third party patch may introduce additional unforeseen risks and void the software licenses for the patched applications.
    C. The company's patch management solution only supports patches and updates released directly by the vendor.
    D. Another period of vulnerability will be introduced because of the need to remove the third party patch prior to installing any vendor patch.

  • Question 440:

    After reviewing a company's NAS configuration and file system access logs, the auditor is advising the security administrator to implement additional security controls on the NFS export. The security administrator decides to remove the no_root_squash directive from the export and add the nosuid directive. Which of the following is true about the security controls implemented by the security administrator?

    A. The newly implemented security controls are in place to ensure that NFS encryption can only be controlled by the root user.
    B. Removing the no_root_squash directive grants the root user remote NFS read/write access to important files owned by root on the NAS.
    C. Users with root access on remote NFS client computers can always use the SU command to modify other user's files on the NAS.
    D. Adding the nosuid directive disables regular users from accessing files owned by the root user over NFS even after using the SU command.

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