Which of the following statements best represents a network issue?
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A
The development team on the fourth floor is unable to access servers and email services.
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B
Cell phones served by a specific telecom company are getting a "no service" message.
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C
A user cannot connect to Wi-Fi because of a wrong ID or password.
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D
A user is receiving an automatic reply message saying that an email address does not exist.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn entire development team on one floor losing access to both servers and email indicates a shared connectivity failure affecting multiple users and services. That pattern best represents a network issue. A wrong Wi-Fi credential is an individual authentication problem, while a nonexistent email address concerns message delivery rather than common network access.
Project A is running behind schedule. The team realizes that Project B is working on an API that was planned to be developed by Project A. The project manager from Project A decides to use the API from Project B. Which of the following risk management strategies describes this example?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationProject A gains schedule value by collaborating with Project B and using an API that the other project is already developing. This makes the opportunity and its benefit dependent on participation by both projects. Share is the positive-risk strategy that allocates involvement so the parties can realize the opportunity together.
A client made a change request. Implementing the change will cause a delay in the project and a budget overrun. Which of the following should the project manager do first?
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationBecause the requested change would delay the schedule and exceed the budget, it affects controlled project baselines. The CCB must evaluate and approve or reject such an impact before implementation. Escalating the request to the CCB comes before accepting it, changing the WBS, or performing the work.
Which of the following can a project manager infer from the following velocity chart? 
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A
The project is on schedule.
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B
The project Is ahead of schedule.
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C
The project is behind schedule.
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationOn a velocity or burn-down chart, lower remaining actual effort at the same point in time means work is being completed faster than planned. After roughly day 13, the actual-effort line drops below the planned-timeline line and reaches about ten remaining features by day 16, while the plan still has more remaining. This favorable gap indicates that the project is ahead of schedule.
A cloud data migration stalled due to a lack of system resources. Which of the following is the next step after receiving approval through the change process?
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A
Increase the storage capacity.
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B
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C
Purchase additional hard drives.
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D
Reduce the amount of migrated data.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe migration stalled because available system resources were insufficient, and the approved response is to expand the resource directly needed to hold the migrating cloud data. Increasing storage capacity removes that capacity constraint and allows migration to continue. Reducing migrated data would alter the intended work rather than supply the missing resource.
Which of the following techniques modifies the schedule based upon resource constraints?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Precedence Diagramming Method
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Correct answerA
ExplanationResource availability can alter when scheduled activities are realistically performed. The Critical Chain Method accounts for resource constraints when constructing the schedule and uses buffers to protect completion dates from uncertainty. Critical path identifies the longest dependency path, while the diagramming methods primarily represent activity relationships.
Some project deliverables are behind schedule because adequate resources are not available to finish tasks in the set timeline. Which of the following should the project manager use to document this in formation?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe resource shortage is an existing condition that has already caused deliverables to fall behind schedule, so it must be managed as an issue. Recording it in the issue log captures its impact, priority, owner, status, and required actions. A status report may communicate the delay, while a task board or time tracker does not provide the same issue-management record.
A project plan included budgeted funding to set up only a specified number of workstations. A department manager asked a project manager to set up additional workstations just in case the workstations are needed in the future. Which of the following should the project manager do?
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A
Ask the sponsor for additional funding to accommodate the request.
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B
Escalate the request to the senior management team.
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C
Advise that a change request would need to be approved.
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D
Instruct the project team to set up the additional workstations.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe approved plan and funding cover only a specified number of workstations. Additional units would expand scope and cost, even if requested as a precaution, so they cannot be added informally. An approved change request is needed to assess the impact and authorize the revised work before execution.
Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate for gathering the project team's ad hoc opinions on a specific question or topic so the views could be quickly evaluated?
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA real-time poll presents a specific question with structured response choices and immediately aggregates the team's opinions. This allows the project manager to evaluate the distribution of views quickly. Email, collaboration platforms, and video chat can host discussion, but they do not summarize ad hoc responses as directly or rapidly.
Question 10
Multiple choice
A stakeholder called a project manager on the telephone to ask for a status report. Which of the following describe this type of communication? (Select two).
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersC, D
ExplanationA telephone conversation is verbal because the information is exchanged through spoken words. It is also informal in this situation because the stakeholder directly calls the project manager for an update rather than receiving a structured written report or participating in a formally arranged status presentation.
Question 11
Single choice
During a project meeting, a critical decision needs to be made quickly to keep the project on track. The project manager chooses to make an autocratic decision. Which of the following best describes this decision-making style?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn autocratic decision is made unilaterally by the person with authority rather than through group agreement. In conflict-management terms, this is forcing: the project manager imposes a decision to obtain a rapid outcome and keep work moving. Compromising and problem solving require participation, while smoothing minimizes differences.
Question 12
Single choice
A car manufacturer is presenting to three vendors the abilities and qualifications required to develop the last module of a data warehouse application. The manufacturer is emphasizing the technical skills necessary to complete the project on time and highlighting its current internal IT project. Which of the following best describes this activity?
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A
Key stakeholder identification
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B
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C
Solution design determination
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D
Critical factor enlistment
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDescribing required abilities and technical qualifications to several potential vendors is an early sourcing activity. Preliminary procurement establishes what outside capability is needed and communicates that need before a vendor is selected and contracted. The emphasis on vendors, qualifications, and timely completion places the activity in procurement.
Question 13
Single choice
A company is starting a new implementation project The stakeholders are reviewing RFP responses to help make a decision about which project management consulting firm to hire. Given the following information:  Which of the following is the best consulting firm for the company to hire?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationConsulting firm 1 offers seven project managers, an average of 12 years of experience, and five projects similar in scope to the RFP for $100,225. Firm 4 matches those qualifications but costs $400 more, while firms 2 and 3 provide weaker experience, staffing, or similar-project results at higher prices. Firm 1 provides the best value.
Question 14
Single choice
During a kickoff call, a project was rejected by the legal department due to the risk of violating new legislation. Which of the following was applied?
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A
Awareness of the local environment
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B
Awareness of the brand value
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C
Awareness of the resource constraints
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D
Awareness of the company's mission
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Correct answerA
ExplanationNew legislation is part of the external conditions surrounding a project in its operating location. Legal's rejection reflects awareness of that local environment and its constraints on permissible work. Brand value, internal resource capacity, and the company's mission do not directly determine compliance with the new law.
Question 15
Single choice
Which of the following situations would require a project manager to revise the communication plan during a project's execution?
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A
A change is approved that impacts the project schedule and budget
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B
The test results are not as expected
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C
The team is unclear which meetings they should attend
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D
A stakeholder requests some changes to the scope
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Correct answerC
ExplanationUncertainty about which meetings team members should attend indicates that communication expectations are not sufficiently defined. The communication plan should specify audiences, meeting purposes, participation needs, timing, and related responsibilities. Revising it resolves the ambiguity and ensures that the right people receive and contribute the required information during execution.
Question 16
Single choice
During the testing process, testers have found multiple bugs that could jeopardize the project commitment date Which of the following tools should the project manager use first to update the findings?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe testers have discovered specific faults in the product, so each finding should first be entered in the defect log. That log supports description, ownership, severity, tracking, and resolution of testing defects. The possible effect on the commitment date can then be assessed and managed using the defect information recorded there.
Question 17
Single choice
A project team in a projectized organization has been struggling due to some members performing duties that are assigned to others. Which of the following steps should the project manager take next in solving this issue?
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A
Escalate the issue to the management team.
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B
Discuss the project charter during a team meeting.
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C
Ask the team to be open for collaboration.
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D
Review the RACI matrix with the team.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe problem is confusion or disregard concerning who owns specific duties. Reviewing the RACI matrix with the team clarifies who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each area of work. This directly realigns assignments before escalation is considered; a general request for collaboration would not resolve the disputed responsibility boundaries.
Question 18
Single choice
A project manager would like to add external engineers to the current team. Engineers will participate in specific tasks only during the testing phase. Which of the following contracts would the project manager most likely use in this situation?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe external engineers are needed temporarily for specific testing tasks, so the exact effort may vary while the engagement remains limited in duration. A time and material contract pays for labor time and any applicable materials actually used, providing flexibility when the work cannot be priced as a fully fixed package.
Question 19
Single choice
Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial to determine whether a project has met the defined objectives?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Key performance indicators
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Correct answerD
ExplanationKey performance indicators are defined measures tied to intended performance and success outcomes. Comparing actual KPI results with their targets directly indicates whether the project's objectives were achieved, while schedule and cost variance address only particular constraints and a work breakdown structure organizes work.
Question 20
Single choice
After months of recruiting, a team finally found the right candidate for a very specific coding language assignment. Due to this delay, the team has a tight timeline without any float. A day before the candidate is scheduled to join the team, the project manager realizes the candidate has a non-compete agreement from the previous employer. Which of the following should the project manager do?
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A
Withdraw the offer to the candidate and raise this as a risk.
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B
Ignore a potential lawsuit since this is a critical project.
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C
Use a third-party company for the contract to legally avoid responsibility.
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D
Have a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss the situation.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe non-compete agreement creates a significant legal and staffing concern immediately before a critical assignment begins. Meeting with the project sponsor enables an informed decision about the risk, timeline impact, and acceptable course of action at the appropriate authority level. Ignoring or attempting to evade the agreement would not resolve the exposure.
Question 21
Single choice
A demo presentation for a global project was not as successful as expected because the development team misinterpreted which features needed to be incorporated. Which of the following has the project manager identified?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe development team misinterpreted which features were required, indicating that the intended meaning was not communicated consistently across the global project. Language barriers can cause terms, details, or expectations to be understood differently, producing an incorrect implementation. Scope creep would involve unauthorized added work, while poor sample data and technological factors do not explain the stated misunderstanding of feature requirements.
Question 22
Single choice
A project manager is facilitating a meeting where the attendees cannot reach agreement on a decision. Which of the following actions should the project manager take?
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A
The project manager must discuss the decision with stakeholders to reach a consensus.
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B
The decision must be made based only on one stakeholder's needs.
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C
Team members must make a decision without the project manager's permission.
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D
The project manager must independently make the decision.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationWhen attendees cannot agree, the project manager should continue discussing the decision with the relevant stakeholders to reach consensus. This approach considers the affected perspectives and builds shared support for the outcome. Letting one person's needs control the result or making an unsupported unilateral decision bypasses collaborative resolution.
Question 23
Single choice
Missed work is traced to unclear role boundaries and one missing technical skill. What is the best response?
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A
Add headcount without determining which gap caused each delay
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B
Clarify roles, assess the skill gap, and choose a proportionate intervention
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C
Publicly criticize the team before checking expectations or capacity
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D
Rewrite the schedule baseline so the missed work no longer appears late
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe delays have two identified causes: unclear responsibility and a specific technical skill gap. Role boundaries should first be clarified so work has clear ownership. The missing skill can then be assessed and addressed with an intervention proportionate to the actual need, avoiding an indiscriminate response that may leave both causes unresolved.
Question 24
Single choice
Project members are based in three countries and each work remotely Which of the following would a project manager use to improve internal project communication?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTeam touch points provide recurring opportunities for remote members to synchronize work, share immediate concerns, and maintain working relationships across three countries. They improve ongoing internal communication through direct interaction. Reports and minutes record information but do not replace regular team coordination.
Question 25
Single choice
During the course of a project, an unexpected event occurs that could ultimately benefit the company. Which of the following is the company employing if the company decides to take advantage of this opportunity?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationExploit is an opportunity response used when the organization acts to ensure that a beneficial event or condition is realized. The company is not merely observing the opportunity; it has decided to take advantage of it directly. Enhance would increase probability or benefit without necessarily ensuring realization, while mitigate addresses threats.
Question 26
Single choice
A project manager submits a change request. The change request is rejected because of code freeze. Which of the following actions should the project manager take next?
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A
Update the risk register.
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B
Escalate the issue for exceptional approval.
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C
Communicate to the stakeholders.
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D
Submit a duplicate change request.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe request has already completed review and was rejected because changes are prohibited during the code freeze. The project manager should communicate that decision and its effect to the stakeholders who depend on the requested outcome. Resubmitting the same request or seeking an exception would disregard the completed decision unless new authorization were provided.
Question 27
Single choice
A PM learns about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?
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A
Escalate the communication issues.
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B
Implement a communication platform.
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C
Review the communication plan.
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D
Talk with the head of the PMO.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe communication plan defines stakeholder information needs, methods, frequency, responsibilities, and channels. When communication issues emerge, the project manager should first review that plan to determine whether it was inadequate or not followed. A platform change or escalation should be based on the specific gap found during that review.
Question 28
Multiple choice
Which of the following activities would be performed during the project closure phase when the waterfall methodology is being used? (Select two).
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A
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B
Managing the quality of deliverables
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C
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D
Performing a risk assessment
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E
Validating the deliverables
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F
Reconciling the project budget
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Correct answersE, F
ExplanationValidating the deliverables confirms that completed waterfall outputs satisfy agreed requirements and acceptance criteria before final closure. Reconciling the project budget closes the financial record by comparing planned and actual expenditures and resolving outstanding amounts. Both activities establish that project obligations are complete.
Question 29
Single choice
A project misses a deadline. The project manager creates the following diagram:  Which of the following is most likely the root cause of the delay?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe release delay is linked to customers adding previously unrequested features while the change control process was not followed. Uncontrolled expansion of requested work beyond the approved scope is scope creep, and it adds effort that can extend the schedule. Unnecessary features created by the team represent gold plating, but the customer-driven uncontrolled additions identify the broader root cause.
Question 30
Single choice
Project team members have questions regarding their responsibilities during the latest sprint. Which of the following personnel would MOST likely be able to assist?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe Scrum master helps the team understand and apply Scrum practices, including how team responsibilities operate during a sprint. This role facilitates the process, coaches participants, and helps remove confusion or impediments affecting the team's work. The product owner focuses on product value and backlog priorities rather than coaching the team on the framework.
Question 31
Single choice
Which of the following roles helps a team achieve its sprint objective?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe Scrum master helps the team achieve its sprint objective by facilitating Scrum activities, coaching the team in the process, and helping remove impediments. The product owner determines priorities and value, while the Scrum master concentrates on enabling the team to work effectively toward the sprint goal.
Question 32
Single choice
Which of the following describes KPIs?
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A
Analyses of organizational strengths and weaknesses
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B
Graphical representations of process flow
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C
Elements against which performance can be measured
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D
Collaboration platform tools
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Correct answerC
ExplanationKPIs turn an objective into something that can be monitored and compared. They are defined elements against which performance can be measured, such as a rate, duration, quality level, or completed amount. This measurement function distinguishes them from process diagrams, collaboration tools, and analyses of organizational strengths and weaknesses.
Question 33
Single choice
A project manager has decided to make a scope change in the SOW. Which of the following should the project manager do first in the process?
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A
Discuss with a team lead.
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B
Move to the next step in the process.
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C
Communicate with the project sponsor.
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D
Have a meeting with the human resources department.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA scope change to the SOW can alter the project's authorized obligations and requires engagement with the person who provides executive sponsorship and funding authority. The PM should communicate with the project sponsor before advancing the change. A team lead or human resources department does not hold the appropriate project-level authority for that decision.
Question 34
Single choice
A new code version is being validated. During testing, a defect is found. The team suggests disabling the code path leading to the defect. Which of the following describes the team's suggestion?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA work-around bypasses or avoids the condition causing a problem without necessarily correcting the underlying defect. Disabling the code path lets testing continue without entering the failing behavior, which is different from restoring an earlier version through rollback.
Question 35
Single choice
Which of the following best describes why conducting lessons learned sessions is important?
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A
To discuss as a team how to improve and eliminate all the issues in the project
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B
To conduct the team's performance evaluation and document the results
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C
To report all the mistakes and ensure others do not make the same ones
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D
To document what went right and wrong, as well as possible improvements
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Correct answerD
ExplanationLessons learned capture both successful practices and problems, along with possible improvements that can guide current or future work. Their purpose is organizational learning rather than assigning blame or evaluating individual performance. They also cannot guarantee that every project issue will be eliminated.
Question 36
Single choice
A project manager reviews the watch list and notices the probability of occurrence has increased for one item listed in this document; consequently, frequent monitoring is required. Which of the following tools should the project manager update NEXT?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA watch-list item is a monitored risk, and an increase in its probability changes the risk assessment. The risk register should therefore be updated with the revised probability, priority, monitoring frequency, response information, and related ownership. It becomes an issue only if the event occurs; an increased chance alone remains a risk condition.
Question 37
Single choice
Which of the following communication methods would be the most appropriate to finalize the handoff of deliverables?
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A
A virtual meeting with all the stakeholders
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B
A face-to-face kickoff meeting with the stakeholders
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C
A closure meeting with the project team and stakeholders
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D
A final report submitted via email to the stakeholders
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA closure meeting brings the project team and stakeholders together to confirm completion, address outstanding matters, and finalize transfer of the deliverables. This provides direct agreement on the handoff at the appropriate project stage. A kickoff starts work, and an emailed report alone does not provide the same joint closure confirmation.
Question 38
Single choice
Project files are encrypted at rest, but shared administrator accounts are still used and no tested backup exists. Which action best addresses the remaining risks?
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A
Keep encryption as the sole control because it also guarantees recovery
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B
Disable monitoring so administrator activity remains confidential
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C
Add individual strong authentication, least privilege, and tested recovery
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D
Move the files to development because project data needs no protection there
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEncryption at rest protects stored content but does not distinguish administrators or provide recovery. Individual strong authentication makes access attributable, least privilege limits each person's permissions, and tested recovery confirms that data can be restored after loss or disruption.
Question 39
Single choice
An enhancement is set to be released into production, and availability issues need to be avoided. Before the release, which of the following should be the most important consideration?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe release must avoid availability problems, so its direct operational concern is system downtime. Understanding the expected outage allows the release to be timed and coordinated around service availability. Risk, cost, and customer experience remain relevant, but downtime is the specific condition that determines whether the availability objective is met.
Question 40
Single choice
A project manager has been assigned a project consisting of team members from multiple time zones. The project manager is trying to establish proper communication channels to use for project communications. In which of the following phases is the project manager working?
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A
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B
Monitoring and controlling
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDetermining which communication channels a distributed team will use is part of planning project communications. During planning, the project manager accounts for stakeholder needs, time-zone constraints, communication methods, and information distribution. Execution uses those established channels, while monitoring evaluates whether communications remain effective.
Question 41
Multiple choice
A project manager was just assigned to a new project. Which of the following activities should the project manager undertake after accepting the project? (Select TWO).
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A
Review the detailed plan.
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B
Develop a preliminary scope.
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C
Develop a transition plan.
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D
Develop a project management plan.
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E
Review the resource pool.
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F
Review the project objectives.
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Correct answersB, F
ExplanationThe project manager should first review the project objectives to understand the intended outcomes and business direction. Those objectives then provide the basis for developing a preliminary scope that establishes the project's initial boundaries and major deliverables. A detailed project management plan depends on this foundation, while a transition plan belongs closer to delivery or closure.
Question 42
Single choice
A project cannot complete its configuration if the network installation has not been completed yet. Which of the following describes this relationship?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe restriction concerns completion of both activities: configuration may proceed, but it cannot finish until network installation has finished. That is a finish-to-finish dependency because the predecessor's finish controls when the successor is allowed to finish. It is not finish-to-start, which would prevent configuration from starting at all before installation ends.
Question 43
Single choice
Which of the following is a reason to use a SOW on a project?
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A
To find out the contact information for the vendors
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B
To review the list of stakeholders
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C
To ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract
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D
To give explicit instruction on how to execute the work
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA statement of work defines the work, deliverables, and boundaries covered by an agreement. Referring to the SOW helps ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract and provides a basis for identifying work that would require formal change handling. It is not primarily a vendor directory, stakeholder list, or detailed procedure for performing every task.
Question 44
Single choice
While developing a project charter, a PM discovers that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation, which could result in significant financial penalties against the organization. The PM knows that implementation of appropriate changes is costly and will exceed the budget and scope of the project. Which of the following should the PM do FIRST?
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A
Escalate the finding to the change control board.
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B
Add a risk to the risk register for validation.
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C
Consult the RACI matrix to identify ownership of the risk.
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D
Have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationUnaddressed legal requirements create significant organizational exposure, and correcting them would exceed the project's current budget and scope. The project sponsor and main stakeholders must first understand the finding and its consequences so they can decide whether the project remains viable or needs revised authority and funding. A change board cannot substitute for that initial strategic decision while the charter is still being developed.
Question 45
Multiple choice
A PM is responsible for implementing a new customer relationship management system and has learned that the sales organization is reluctant to utilize the new system. The organization's reluctance could jeopardize the success of the project. Which of the following steps should be taken to understand the adoption issues and gain organizational acceptance of the initiative? (Select TWO).
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A
Train users on the proper use of the system.
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B
Escalate the issue to the CCB
-
C
Hold sessions to understand user challenges.
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D
Track system usage and report user activity.
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E
Log the issue in the project risk register.
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F
Create a memorandum of acceptable use.
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Correct answersA, C
ExplanationSessions with users reveal the specific workflow, usability, or process challenges driving their reluctance, so the team can address the real adoption barriers. Training then gives users the knowledge and practice needed to operate the system properly. Together, understanding challenges and training users support acceptance instead of merely monitoring resistance.
Question 46
Single choice
One of a project's requirements is to create a data warehouse for a new application. Which of the following does the project team need most to create this data warehouse?
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A
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B
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C
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D
A development environment
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCreating a data warehouse requires an environment where the team can design schemas, build data structures, integrate data, and modify the implementation safely. A development environment provides that workspace. Reporting, testing, and backup environments support later or separate functions rather than the primary construction of the warehouse.
Question 47
Single choice
A locked server room protects project equipment, but the team has no access logging, backup procedure, or incident process. What should be added?
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A
Another door lock as the only additional safeguard
-
B
Operational controls for logging, recovery, and incident handling
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C
Public access during business hours to improve availability
-
D
Encryption as a replacement for every physical and procedural control
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe locked room already supplies a physical safeguard, but it does not record access, restore lost data, or coordinate a response to security events. Operational controls for logging, recovery, and incident handling address each of those remaining procedural and resilience gaps.
Question 48
Single choice
A team member identifies a critical issue in production. Which of the following should the project manager apply?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA critical production issue requires restoring service to a known stable condition before further corrective work proceeds. Applying the rollback plan reverses the problematic production change or release using predefined recovery steps. A release plan deploys changes, while validation and compliance checks assess conditions without restoring the prior state.
Question 49
Single choice
Project team members are leaving the company due to a stressful work environment. The project manager needs to capture this concern about potentially losing team members again. Which of the following logs should the project manager use?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe immediate departures have occurred, but the concern being captured is the possibility that additional team members may leave. That future event could affect staffing, schedule, and delivery, so it belongs in the risk log for assessment, ownership, response planning, and monitoring. An issue log would apply after the potential loss becomes an active problem.
Question 50
Single choice
A PM is concerned with the organization's intellectual property and wants to implement new physical security measures to better protect trade secrets. Which of the following is the best action to take?
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A
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B
Restrict removable media.
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C
Install security cameras.
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBiometrics strengthens physical access control by verifying an individual's physical characteristic before permitting entry to protected areas. This helps restrict access to locations containing trade-secret information to authorized personnel. Removable-media restrictions are logical controls, while cameras mainly record or deter activity rather than authenticate entrants.
Question 51
Single choice
A project has been initiated to provide insurance forms for a company. A constraint for this project is that the insurance commission in each state where the company underwrites has to approve each form. Which of the following compliance considerations BEST describes this scenario?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationApproval by each state's insurance commission is an external rule imposed by government-authorized bodies on the forms the company uses. Those required approvals create regulatory impacts on the project's deliverables and schedule, rather than environmental, internal organizational, or sensitive-data considerations.
Question 52
Single choice
The project manager of a global project constantly receives complaints from individuals at another location that some team members are not available after lunch on Fridays. This is acceptable to the project manager. Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause for this scenario?
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A
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B
Intra-organizational differences
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA recurring Friday-afternoon availability pattern that is accepted by the project manager points to a local work practice or observance. Such practices arise from culture and can differ among locations on a global project. A time-zone difference would shift availability by clock time rather than specifically explain the Friday pattern.
Question 53
Single choice
An interface failure is currently blocking system testing. What is the correct way to control this condition?
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A
Record it only as an uncertain event in the risk register
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B
Delete the record as soon as a developer reports a possible fix
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C
Log it as an issue, assign and prioritize it, then verify closure
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D
Wait for project closure before identifying an owner or status
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe interface failure is happening now and is blocking testing, so it must be controlled as an issue rather than as a possible future event. Logging it establishes the record, assigning it creates accountability, and prioritizing it reflects its impact on testing. After corrective work, verification confirms that the blockage is removed before the issue is closed.
Question 54
Single choice
Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related projects?
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A
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA program coordinates multiple related projects so their dependencies, resources, governance, and combined benefits can be managed together. Establishing a program provides that shared management structure. An SDLC governs solution development, while a CCB addresses changes rather than overall coordination of related projects.
Question 55
Single choice
Which of the following is the most likely reason for a project manager to choose an agile framework for a project?
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A
The project sponsor wants to have the entire product ready in a single deliverable.
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B
The project sponsor wants to reduce the total cost of the project.
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C
The project sponsor is expecting to have a minimum viable product at the earliest release.
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D
The project sponsor did not get the CCB approval for a waterfall project.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn agile framework supports delivering usable value through early, incremental releases. When the sponsor expects a minimum viable product in the earliest release, the team can provide a small functional version and refine it through later iterations. Agile does not inherently guarantee a lower total cost or require the entire product in one delivery.
Question 56
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the results? 
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A
No correlation exists between the extra hours worked and the number of defects in the code.
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B
A positive correlation exists between the extra hours worked and the number of defects in the code.
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C
A non-linear correlation exists between the extra hours worked and the number of defects in the code.
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D
A negative correlation exists between the extra hours worked and the number of defects in the code.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe scatter plot shows a clear upward trend between the average number of defects and the average number of extra hours worked. As the number of defects increases, the number of extra hours worked generally increases as well. When two variables tend to increase together, they have a positive correlation. Therefore, the chart demonstrates a positive correlation between defects and extra working hours.
Question 57
Single choice
A client requested a new product but does not have the final requirements. Which of the following methodologies would the project manager most likely use?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAgile accommodates requirements that are incomplete or expected to evolve. The team develops in short iterations, reviews working increments with the client, and updates priorities as feedback clarifies the product. Waterfall depends more heavily on stable requirements established early, making it less suitable when the final requirements are not yet known.
Question 58
Single choice
Which of the following best explains why companies apply background screening during the employment process?
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A
To increase access restrictions
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B
To define KPIs for new employees
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C
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D
To apply operational security
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Correct answerD
ExplanationBackground screening is a personnel control applied before or during employment to reduce risks arising from who is entrusted with organizational duties and access. It supports operational security by evaluating people as part of secure day-to-day operations, rather than defining performance measures or evaluating health information.
Question 59
Single choice
A company purchases new software. The project manager needs to present the new software's features to the stakeholders. Which of the following meeting types should the project manager and stakeholders have?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAn informative meeting is intended to present facts, explain capabilities, and build stakeholder understanding. Demonstrating the purchased software's features serves that purpose because the project manager is conveying established information. A brainstorming meeting would generate ideas, while a status meeting would report project performance.
Question 60
Single choice
A project manager requests the testing team to figure out if a website allows multiple users to be signed in at the same time. Which of the following testing methods would be best for the testing team to use?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe requirement concerns how the website behaves when many users are signed in concurrently, which places load on the system. Stress testing exercises the site under substantial simultaneous demand to reveal capacity limits, performance degradation, or failures that unit, smoke, and regression testing do not primarily target.
Question 61
Multiple choice
Which of the following can a project manager use to ensure that everyone is clear on responsibilities and deadlines after a meeting? (Choose two.)
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersB, D
ExplanationAction items convert meeting decisions into specific work by identifying what must be done, who owns it, and when it is due. Follow-ups reinforce those commitments after the meeting, confirm progress, and address unresolved responsibilities. Used together, they preserve clarity about both accountability and deadlines beyond the original discussion.
Question 62
Single choice
A global shipping slowdown is causing critical raw materials needed for manufacturing to be delivered late. As a result, a project's production run will be delayed from the beginning. Which of the following dependencies is most likely happening?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationManufacturing cannot start its production run until delivery of the required raw materials has finished. That is a finish-to-start dependency: the predecessor activity must finish before the successor activity may start. A delay in the material delivery finish therefore moves the production start and delays the run from its beginning.
Question 63
Multiple choice
An IT infrastructure change request needs to be implemented in the production environment. Which of the following elements are the most important prerequisites? (Select two).
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersA, C
ExplanationA deployment plan defines how the approved infrastructure change will be introduced into production, including the ordered implementation activities needed for a controlled release. Rollback plans define how to restore the prior stable state if deployment fails or creates unacceptable effects. Together they cover execution and recovery before production work begins.
Question 64
Single choice
A project is executed to migrate all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. The team validates that system performance will not be impacted. Which of the following did the team perform?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMigrating all data from two companies can place a substantial workload on the consolidated system. Stress testing evaluates system behavior under demanding volumes or loads, which addresses whether performance will be degraded by the migration. Regression testing instead checks whether previously working functions still operate after a change.
Question 65
Single choice
A critical business initiative introduced new processes and technology to the organization. Which of the following approaches should be used to ensure the deliverables are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time?
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A
Creation of a social news forum
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B
Management directives to use the new system
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C
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D
Monthly feedback and training sessions
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Correct answerD
ExplanationMonthly feedback and training sessions provide continuing support after implementation. Training strengthens users' ability to apply the new processes and technology, while feedback identifies adoption obstacles and needed adjustments. Repeating both activities over time encourages increasing use more effectively than a one-time kickoff or directive.
Question 66
Single choice
Which of the following artifacts should project team members use if they want to identify who to communicate with and at what level?
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A
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B
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C
Integrated master schedule
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationRACI identifies each participant's relationship to project work as responsible, accountable, consulted, or informed. Those distinctions show whom team members should contact for action, approval, input, or notification and therefore indicate the required communication level. A schedule or WBS describes work and timing, not communication roles.
Question 67
Single choice
A developer focused on a single story during an entire sprint. The story was underestimated and, therefore, was not completed. Which of the following steps should the Scrum team take next?
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A
Assign more resources to complete similar stories in the future.
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B
Break the stories into workable items that can be completed within one sprint.
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C
Extend the sprint duration when required with the approval of the product owner.
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D
Release the current progress into production and carry over the rest of the code for the next sprint.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA story should be small enough to reach completion within a sprint. Breaking oversized stories into workable items improves estimation, supports incremental delivery, and reduces the chance that one underestimated item consumes the entire iteration. Sprint duration remains fixed, and incomplete code should not be treated as a production-ready increment.
Question 68
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the role of a PM for a CRM system?
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A
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B
To store customer information
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C
To implement new features
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe project manager's role is to manage delivery of project changes to the CRM system, such as implementing new features. Tracking sales and storing customer information are operational functions performed by the CRM, not the project manager's project role. Paying vendors is an administrative activity rather than the defining responsibility.
Question 69
Single choice
Three records are needed: a server outage happening now, a proposed database upgrade, and a possible future license delay. Where should they be controlled?
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A
Risk register, issue log, and change log, respectively
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B
Change log, risk register, and issue log, respectively
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C
Issue log, risk register, and change log, respectively
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D
Issue log, change log, and risk register, respectively
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe server outage is occurring now, making it an issue that belongs in the issue log. The database upgrade is a proposed modification, so it is tracked through the change log for evaluation and control. The license delay is a possible future event, which belongs in the risk register for probability, impact, ownership, response planning, and monitoring, respectively.
Question 70
Single choice
A fix that was not submitted to the CCB for approval was applied to an application. Although the change did not have negative consequences, the sponsors expressed concern to the project manager. Which of the following should the project manager do first to prevent this situation from reoccurring?
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A
Meet with the team and highlight the importance of change management.
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B
Roll back the process and submit a change request.
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C
Document the event as a lesson learned.
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D
Remove the team member who bypassed the CCB process.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe fix succeeded technically, but it bypassed the required CCB approval and therefore violated change management. Meeting with the team first addresses the behavior that allowed the bypass by reinforcing why proposed changes require review and authorization. This preventive action targets recurrence without treating a successful fix as an approved change.
Question 71
Single choice
During the execution phase of a project, the project team faced an unexpected website downtime. The project manager how a brainstorming session and the team identified causes and effects tor the problem Now the project team needs to analyze and determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using one of the following charts. Which of the following should the team use? 
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationOption B is a scatter diagram, which plots paired observations for two variables. The distribution of points reveals whether changes in one variable are associated with changes in the other, allowing the team to evaluate a proposed cause-and-effect relationship. The other diagrams organize hierarchy, compare categories, or prioritize frequencies.
Question 72
Single choice
A project team wants to compare two potential vendors' costs and risks for completing project tasks. Which of the following visualizations will best facilitate this analysis?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA decision tree lays out each vendor choice as a branch and connects it to possible cost and risk outcomes. Probabilities and financial effects can be assigned to those outcomes, allowing the team to calculate and compare expected results for both vendors. The other charts summarize distributions, causes, or frequencies rather than alternative decisions and consequences.
Question 73
Single choice
Before authorizing an initiative, executives need expected costs, benefits, risks, alternatives, and feasibility summarized in one document. What should the project sponsor request?
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A
A detailed resource calendar
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA business case brings together the expected costs, benefits, risks, alternatives, and feasibility needed for an investment decision. Executives can use that consolidated justification to determine whether the proposed initiative is worthwhile and should be authorized.
Question 74
Single choice
Which of the following can help identify opportunities for future improvement following the successful closure of a project?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA postmortem examines the completed project's results, decisions, successes, and difficulties after closure. By identifying what worked and what should change, it converts project experience into lessons and specific opportunities that can improve the planning and execution of future projects.
Question 75
Single choice
A project manager and IT manager are working on developing operational training and hand-off procedures, as well as considering a move-to-production date. Which of the following are the project manager and IT manager working on?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA transition plan defines how a completed solution moves into production and operational ownership. Operational training, hand-off procedures, and the move-to-production date are central transition activities because they prepare support personnel and establish the transfer timing. Risk, communications, and QA plans address different management concerns.
Question 76
Single choice
In which of the following types of architectures is an application moved from Dev to QA to Test to Production?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA tiered architecture separates the delivery path into distinct controlled environments. Moving an application through Dev, QA, Test, and Production is progression across those tiers, with each environment serving a different development or validation purpose. Business, process, and governance architectures describe organizational structures rather than this environment sequence.
Question 77
Single choice
A financial manager reports that several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue?
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A
A project manager assigned the wrong resources.
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B
A project manager did not release the resources
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C
A project manager did not remove the system access.
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D
A project manager did not provide the project sign-off.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationResources that remain assigned after their work should have ended can continue to appear in allocation and financial records. If a project manager did not release those resources, their old assignment can overlap with the current one and produce an apparent 200% allocation. System access and sign-off do not directly remove a resource booking.
Question 78
Single choice
Which risk register entry is most actionable for a possible integration delay?
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A
Late vendor test feed may delay integration; Sam monitors the date
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B
Integration is risky, so the project manager owns every related action
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C
The test feed failed yesterday, and no owner has been assigned
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D
Integration may be difficult, but triggers and effects are unnecessary
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe late vendor test feed identifies a specific possible cause, and the resulting integration delay states the project effect. Naming Sam supplies ownership, while monitoring the date gives that owner an observable condition to track and act upon. Together, the cause, effect, owner, and monitoring point make this risk entry practical and actionable.
Question 79
Single choice
A project buys insurance to transfer part of a threat's financial impact. What responsibility remains with the project?
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A
Ignore the threat because all accountability moved to the insurer
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B
Keep an owner to monitor exposure and execute triggered actions
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C
Reclassify the threat as an opportunity after purchasing insurance
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D
Close the risk immediately because a response was selected
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Correct answerB
ExplanationInsurance transfers an agreed portion of financial impact, but it does not eliminate the threat or the project's need to manage residual exposure. A risk owner must continue monitoring conditions and be ready to execute triggered actions if the threat develops.
Question 80
Single choice
A PM is working on the preliminary scope statement and identifies that this project has the same approach as another project that was completed last year. Which of the following actions would the PM most likely perform?
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A
Call the previous PM for advice on risks and issues.
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B
Ask the project sponsor to provide previous final project report results.
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C
Complete the project charter using the other PM's subject matter expertise.
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D
Use existing artifacts and accommodate based on the current project success criteria.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationBecause the earlier project used the same approach, its existing artifacts can accelerate development of the preliminary scope and expose reusable patterns. They must still be adapted to the current project's success criteria because objectives and constraints may differ. Reusing and tailoring the documented material is more complete than seeking isolated advice or copying a charter solely through another manager's expertise.
Question 81
Single choice
Which of the following best describes why a project manager would decide to sign a fixed-price contract with a vendor?
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A
The scope of the project deliverable is clearly defined.
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B
There is a non-disclosure agreement in place.
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C
There are multiple requirements for the product.
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D
The PM wants to simplify the logistics of the required product.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA fixed-price contract establishes an agreed price for specified deliverables, placing strong importance on knowing what must be produced. Clearly defined project scope lets vendors estimate the required work and price it with confidence. Unclear or evolving deliverables would make this contract structure harder to price and manage.
Question 82
Single choice
During the project initiation phase, a project team has been identified. Which of the following is the NEXT step for the project manager?
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A
Determine budget constraints.
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B
Validate the business case.
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C
Update the project charter.
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D
Create a project schedule
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Correct answerC
ExplanationOnce the project team has been identified during initiation, that information should be incorporated into the project charter. Updating the charter keeps the project's high-level authorization and stakeholder information current. Detailed scheduling belongs to later planning, after the initiating information is established.
Question 83
Single choice
A system is scheduled to go live, and the client signed an SLA. Which of the following elements is part of the agreement?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn SLA defines measurable service commitments between the service provider and client after the system goes live. Resolution time is such a commitment because it sets the expected period for restoring service or resolving a qualifying problem. An issue list, WBS, or cost objective is not a service-level commitment.
Question 84
Single choice
A project manager is beginning a new project that will include a high number of complex deliverables. Which of the following is the best to use to track deliverables that are yet to be completed?
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A
Resource management system
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA backlog maintains an organized list of work and deliverables that have not yet been completed. Items can be refined, prioritized, selected for execution, and marked complete as the project progresses. This makes it suitable for tracking many complex pending deliverables rather than recording only issues or individual support tickets.
Question 85
Single choice
A project manager wrote the project's requirements, which led to the final result not meeting stakeholder expectations. Which of the following roles was most likely missing from the project?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA business analyst elicits stakeholder needs, translates them into clear requirements, and validates that those requirements represent the expected business outcome. Without this role, requirements written solely from a project management perspective can miss or misinterpret stakeholder needs. Developers, testers, and architects use requirements but do not own this alignment function.
Question 86
Single choice
Which of the following has the highest priority when executing a project?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationFederal regulations are legally binding requirements and therefore take priority during project execution. A charter, contract, or industry standard cannot authorize work that violates applicable law. The project must remain compliant with federal regulations even when another project document contains a conflicting instruction.
Question 87
Single choice
After a release, the project sponsor received an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Which of the following should be added to the issue log?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe escalation arose because downtime extended beyond the scheduled window and affected an executive's expectations. Customer notification should be captured in the issue log as the response needed to address affected parties and the communication failure. Integration, testing, and rollback are technical practices, not the communication action identified by this incident.
Question 88
Single choice
During a stand-up meeting, a team member asks to include a change that an important stakeholder requested in the project board. This request is denied, and the team member has to go back to what was originally planned for the sprint. Which of the following individuals should the stakeholder have asked to request the change instead of the team member?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe product owner manages and prioritizes the product backlog, represents stakeholder value, and determines how requested work should be considered for future delivery. A stakeholder should therefore direct the change request to the product owner rather than asking a team member to insert it into an active sprint. The Scrum master facilitates the process, but does not own product priority or unilaterally change sprint content.
Question 89
Single choice
A project team is reviewing the project plan and related documents and identifies tasks that could be spread into smaller deliverables. Which of the following documents should the team edit first?
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A
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B
Preliminary scope statement
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe work breakdown structure is the document that decomposes project deliverables into smaller, manageable components. If the team determines that tasks should be divided into smaller deliverables, the WBS must be edited first so later schedule and milestone information can be aligned with the revised decomposition.
Question 90
Single choice
A PM is meeting with the project team to identify the baseline go-live date, the operational training, and the handoff procedures. Which of the following phases is the project team performing?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe team is deciding future dates and procedures before carrying out the transition. Establishing the baseline go-live date, arranging operational training, and defining handoff procedures are planning activities because they determine how and when deployment and transition will occur. Execution follows once those plans are put into action.
Question 91
Single choice
Two project team members are assigned to set up new work areas and are disagreeing about the placement of hardware and peripherals at the end users' desks. The requirements do not specify where to place the items, just what is needed in each space. Which of the following should the project manager do to resolve the conflict?
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A
Send out a survey to the potential end users to gather information about the best functional setup for work productivity.
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B
Provide clear instructions based on personal preference and aesthetics for setup of the work areas.
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C
Explain to team members that the placement of the items is not too important, as long as everything is connected and working.
-
D
Facilitate a meeting between team members to review the pros and cons of the different configurations so as to encourage an amicable solution.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe requirements leave placement open, so neither team member has a prescribed configuration to enforce. The project manager should facilitate a meeting where both can compare the pros and cons of their designs and work toward an amicable solution. This addresses the disagreement collaboratively without imposing an unsupported personal preference.
Question 92
Single choice
A project manager has been assigned to a project that involves replacing key operational equipment. The project manager is new to the industry and has learned that compliance requirements must be met. Which of the following should the project manager do FIRST?
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A
Trust that the project requirements fully document the necessary compliances.
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B
Meet with the end users to learn more about the compliance requirements.
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C
Research the compliance requirements related to the project to understand the implications.
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D
Make the QA specialist responsible for ensuring that the compliance requirements are met.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe PM is new to the industry and knows that compliance affects the equipment replacement, so the first need is an informed understanding of the applicable requirements. Researching those requirements reveals their implications for scope, design, schedule, cost, and acceptance before responsibility or implementation decisions are made.
Question 93
Single choice
Which of the following would be considered operational security?
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A
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B
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C
Multifactor authentication
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationBackground screening is an operational security measure because it reduces personnel risk before individuals receive responsibilities or access within the organization. It supports trustworthy day-to-day operations by checking whether a person presents an unacceptable risk. Multifactor authentication and mobile compliance are logical or technical controls, while facility access is primarily a physical security control.
Question 94
Multiple choice
Which of the following activities are performed during the closing phase? (Select three).
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A
Requesting project charter sign-off
-
B
Recognizing project team efforts and rewarding team members
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C
Working with the financial team to obtain return of investment
-
D
Revoking resource credentials from the system
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E
Updating the risk register with new findings
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F
Informing the functional manager about the release of resources
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G
Monitoring project team performance
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Correct answersB, D, F
ExplanationClosing includes recognizing project team efforts and rewarding members after their contribution is complete. It also requires revoking resource credentials so former project access does not remain active. Finally, informing the functional manager about the release of resources returns personnel to their organizational assignments. Risk discovery and performance monitoring occur while work is active, not as final release activities.
Question 95
Single choice
During schedule planning, a project manager determined the logical dependencies required to complete the project. Which of the following activities should the project manager do next?
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A
Determine the stakeholders positively impacted in the project.
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B
Determine the escalation reporting tool to be used in the project.
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C
Determine the resources required to complete the tasks.
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D
Determine the total cost incurred in the project's execution.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationLogical dependencies establish the order in which project tasks can occur. The manager can next determine the people, equipment, and other resources each task requires, then use both sequencing and resource needs to develop a workable schedule; total execution cost depends on those resource estimates.
Question 96
Single choice
A new stakeholder has joined a project and has a different vision of the scope. The sponsor is requiring the project manager to provide a document in which the initial scope of the project is defined. Which of the following should the project manager do next to clarify the differences?
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A
Create a new project management plan.
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B
Collect all project meeting minutes.
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C
Perform project scope management.
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D
Review the project charter.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe project charter records the initially authorized high-level scope and objectives. Reviewing it gives the PM and the new stakeholder a common approved reference for comparing the stakeholder's different vision with the project's original boundaries before deciding whether further scope work or a formal change is needed.
Question 97
Single choice
The project manager asks a member of the team to launch an RFP for a major deliverable. Which of the following best describes what information the project manager is requesting?
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A
Whether the vendors can lower the price of their proposals
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B
General information about the different vendors that can provide the product
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C
How different vendors plan to develop the needed product
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D
The resources needed to develop the product
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn RFP asks vendors to submit proposed solutions for a defined need. The responses explain how different vendors plan to develop and deliver the required product, allowing their approaches to be evaluated. General vendor information is the purpose of an information request, while an RFP seeks a concrete proposal against requirements.
Question 98
Single choice
Which of the following would most likely take place when a team reviews the backlog and presents the status of each task?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA Daily Scrum is the short, recurring coordination event in which team members present progress, current task status, and obstacles while reviewing remaining work. Sprint planning selects and organizes upcoming work, a sprint review evaluates the completed increment, and a retrospective examines how the team worked during the sprint.
Question 99
Single choice
A project team is developing a solution to keep the management team informed at all times of a project's progress and performance. Which of the following tools is the best option for this purpose?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA dashboard consolidates current project measures into an accessible view of progress and performance. It can present status indicators, trends, and exceptions together, allowing management to monitor the project's condition without interpreting separate task-level or schedule-only displays.
Question 100
Multiple choice
Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO).
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersB, E
ExplanationA home address identifies where a person resides and can directly connect records or activity to that individual, so it requires protection as personally identifiable information. A date of birth is also a personal identifier commonly used to distinguish or verify an individual and must be protected. Both values concern a person's private identity, unlike general workplace or scheduling attributes in the list.
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