Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA layer 2 switch will break up collision domains but not broadcast domains. To break up broadcast domains you need a Layer 3 switch with vlan capabilities.
Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationApp-IDTM technology leverages the power of the broad global community to provide continuous identification, categorization, and granular risk-based control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications, ensuring new applications are discovered automatically as they become popular.
What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?
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Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not
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Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor
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Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems
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Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS
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What is the port for SMTP?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReferences: https://www.sparkpost.com/blog/what-smtp-port/#:~:text=Port%2025%20is%20the%20original,the%20standard%2C%20default%20SMTP%20port
Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?
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Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?
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endpoint antivirus software
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strong endpoint passwords
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Question 7
Multiple choice
Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)
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The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
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Which protocol is responsible for the translation of an IP address to a MAC address?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationReferences: https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/Address-Resolution-Protocol-ARP#:~:text=Address%20Resolution%20Protocol%20(ARP) %20is,access%20control%20(MAC)% 20address
Question 10
Multiple choice
Which two malware types can replicate themselves? (Choose two.)
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Correct answersA, B
ExplanationReferences: https://www.spamlaws.com/malware-types.html#:~:text=Though%20closely%20related%2C%20worms%20and,be%20a%20corporation's%20worst%20nightmare
Question 11
Single choice
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
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Correct answerA
Explanation"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
Question 12
Single choice
What is the goal of a watering hole attack?
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Compromise websites that are likely to be visited by a targeted victim
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Target senior executives or other high-profile individuals within an organization
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Use specific information about the target to make the phishing attempt appear legitimate
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Redirect a legitimate website's traffic to a fake site
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReferences: https://www.proofpoint.com/au/threat-reference/watering-hole
Question 13
Single choice
A security team is looking for a solution that will offer them real-time analysis of security logs as well as compliance-management and event-correlation features. Which solution is the most suitable?
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Question 14
Single choice
Which key component is used to configure a static route?
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Question 15
Single choice
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
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Correct answerC
Explanation"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"
Question 16
Single choice
Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?
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use of non-standard ports
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hiding within SSL encryption
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tunneling within commonly used services
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPort hopping, in which ports and protocols are randomly changed during a session.
Question 17
Single choice
Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?
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Question 18
Single choice
Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?
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They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.
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They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.
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They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.
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They typically attack only once.
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Question 19
Single choice
What should a security operations engineer de when reviewing suspicious, but successful, login activity?
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Immediately disable the suspicious user until they conclude their investigation.
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Look for other types of suspicious activity in the moments before or after the login.
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Inspect the network firewall for any open ports and include those in their investigation.
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Review who else was logged in at the same time and inspect all active user accounts.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReferences: https://www.exabeam.com/incident-response/steps/
Question 20
Single choice
In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks
Question 21
Single choice
Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
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Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
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An internal three-tier application
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Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
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Traffic between an internal server and internal user
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Correct answerC
ExplanationNorth-south refers to data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center. North-south traffic is secured by one or more physical form factor perimeter edge firewalls.
DRAG DROP Match each tool to its capability. 
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Question 23
Single choice
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
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requires the use of only one cloud service provider
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enables on-demand network services
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requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
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defines any network service
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCloud computing is not a location but rather a pool of resources that can be rapidly provisioned in an automated, on-demand manner.
Question 24
Single choice
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts? Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses Subnet 2: 25 host addresses Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
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Question 25
Single choice
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAttack communication traffic is usually hidden with various techniques and tools, including: Encryption with SSL, SSH (Secure Shell), or some other custom or proprietary encryption Circumvention via proxies, remote access tools, or tunneling. In some instances, use of cellular networks enables complete circumvention of the target network for attack C2 traffic. Port evasion using network anonymizers or port hopping to traverse over any available open ports Fast Flux (or Dynamic DNS) to proxy through multiple infected endpoints or multiple, ever-changing C2 servers to reroute traffic and make determination of the true destination or attack source difficult DNS tunneling is used for C2 communications and data infiltration
Question 26
Single choice
Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?
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Correct answerC
Explanation2G/2.5G: 2G connectivity remains a prevalent and viable IoT connectivity option due to the low cost of 2G modules, relatively long battery life, and large installed base of 2G sensors and M2M applications. 3G: IoT devices with 3G modules use either Wideband Code Division Multiple Access (W-CDMA) or Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+ and Advanced HSPA+) to achieve data transfer rates of 384Kbps to 168Mbps. 4G/Long-Term Evolution (LTE): 4G/LTE networks enable real-time IoT use cases, such as autonomous vehicles, with 4G LTE Advanced Pro delivering speeds in excess of 3Gbps and less than 2 milliseconds of latency. 5G: 5G cellular technology provides significant enhancements compared to 4G/LTE networks and is backed by ultra-low latency, massive connectivity and scalability for IoT devices, more efficient use of the licensed spectrum, and network slicing for application traffic prioritization.
Question 27
Single choice
What type of area network connects end-user devices?
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Campus Area Network (CAN)
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Personal Area Network (PAN)
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://www.spiceworks.com/tech/networking/articles/what-is-local-area-network/#:~:text=A%20local%20area%20network%20(LAN) %20is%20a%20connected%20environment%20spanning,ethernet%20and%20Wi%2DFi%20technology
Question 28
Single choice
What is an example of a Web 3.0 application?
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Question 29
Single choice
Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
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Types of physical storage media used
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Data-at-rest encryption standards
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Acceptable use of the SaaS application
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Vulnerability scanning and management
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Question 30
Single choice
Which method is used to enumerate vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
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