Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe CRIES Pain scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age. This scale has five behavioral measurements that are scored from 0 to 2; the behavioral measurements include the infant's crying, requirements for increased oxygen, increased vital signs, expression, and sleepiness. The PEPPS pain scale (Pre-Verbal, Early Verbal Pediatric Pain Scale is used to assess and measure pain among toddlers. The Face, Legs, Activity, Crying, Consolability Scale (FLACC) is used for infants over two months of age and children up to three years of age. The Faces Pain Scale contains cartoon like pictures of six faces ranging from 0, or "no hurt" to 10 which represents "the worst hurt". It is used for pediatric patients who are three years of age and older.
A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet counts fall to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
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A
Test all excreta for occult blood.
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B
Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
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C
Implement reverse isolation.
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReverse isolation does not affect the risk of hemorrhage.
If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?
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A
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B
decreased plasma testosterone
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationUntreated chronic renal failure causes decreased testosterone levels, atrophy of testicles, and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure. It is a complication of transurethral resection of the prostate. In chronic renal failure, the testicles atrophy; they do not hypertrophy. Chronic renal failure produces a state of depression, not euphoria.
Which of the following is the primary force in sex education in a child's life?
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B
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationParents are the primary force in sex education in a child's life. The school nurse is involved with formal sex education and counseling. Peers become more important in sex education during adolescence but might lack correct information. The media play a powerful role in what children learn about sex through movies, TV, and video games.
The LPN is teaching a first-time mother about breastfeeding her infant, who was born that day. Which statement, if made by the mother, would reflect that the teaching had been successful?
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A
"My baby should be nursing 8-12 times a day during this period."
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B
"My baby should be having at least 4-6 wet diapers a day until 1 month."
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C
"It's nice that breastfed babies eat a bit less than formula fed babies."
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D
"I'm a little nervous about my milk coming in tomorrow. I've heard it's uncomfortable."
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Why might breast implants interfere with mammography?
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A
They might cause additional discomfort.
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B
They are contraindications to mammography.
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C
They are likely to be dislodged.
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D
They might prevent detection of masses.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationBreast implants can prevent detection of masses. Choices "They might cause additional discomfort.", "They are contraindications to mammography." And "They are likely to be dislodged." are not ways in which breast implants interfere with mammography.
Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?
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A
The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
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B
The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
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C
The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
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D
The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationObject permanence occurs when the infant learns that something/someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it/them. This develops between 9 and 10 months of age. If the infant cries when his mother leaves the room, it might be because he believes she is no longer in the house when he can't see her. If an infant picks up another toy after the one he is playing with rolls under the couch and the infant fails to look for it, he believes the toy that rolled under the couch no longer exists. Patty-cake is a game infants engage in but, it has nothing to do with object permanence. An infant game that does show object permanence is peek-a-boo. In this game, an infant continues to hunt for a hidden face because he believes it is still there.
In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed __________.
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationMost protocols require two separate clinical examinations, including induction of painful stimuli, papillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. Choices "heart-lung death" and "higher brain death" have no specific test required. Choice "circulatory death" is not a current definition of death in the United States.
When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationRhytidectomy is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. It is commonly called a face-lift. Dermabrasion involves the spraying of a chemical to cause light freezing of the skin, which is then abraded with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush. It is used to remove facial scars, severe acne, and pigment from tattoos. Rhinoplasty is performed to improve the appearance of the nose and involves reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty is the procedure that removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids.
Question 10
Single choice
What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationVitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian.
Question 11
Single choice
Which cultural group has the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCaucasians have the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
Question 12
Single choice
A client reports that someone is in the room and trying to kill him. The nurse's best response is __________.
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A
"No one is in your room. Let's get you more medicine."
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B
"I do not see anyone, but you seem to be very frightened."
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C
"No one can hurt you here."
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D
"Just tell the person to go away."
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIt is important to acknowledges the client's fear. The other responses deny the client's perceptions.
Question 13
Single choice
A client is taking the fluoroquinolone Ciprofloxin for acute prostatitis. After a few doses of the agent, he develops severe muscle pain. The most likely cause of the adverse reaction is __________.
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D
antibiotic-associated colitis
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn untoward, adverse drug reaction associated with the quinolones is tendon rupture. Electrolyte imbalance has not been associated with the group, and antibiotic-associated colitis is most common in augmentin and penicillin groups.
Question 14
Single choice
Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing him or her has which of the following advantages?
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A
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B
decreases opposition from gravity
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPulling an object works with gravitational force not opposing it, lowering risk of muscle strain.
Question 15
Single choice
Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except __________.
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA despondent friend, even though this could be a support to the grieving person, is in a state of despondency. Therefore, he or she might not do well with a grieving friend.
Question 16
Single choice
Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?
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B
use the side of the hands
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C
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D
spread the fingers of both hands
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe hands are flattened over the area of the body where chest percussion is used to conduct vibration through to the chest and loosen secretions. The other hand positions do not accomplish this task.
Question 17
Single choice
Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
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A
The hematocrit is adversely affected because of an increased vascular volume.
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B
AEDs affect immune modulators increasing the risk of infection.
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C
AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.
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D
A side effect of some AEDs is blood dyscrasia.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSome AEDs cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. "The hematocrit is adversely affected because of an increased vascular volume.", "AEDs affect immune modulators increasing the risk of infection." and "AEDs induce white blood cell reduction." are not side effects of AEDs.
Question 18
Single choice
A nurse is assessing a patient that has undergone a recent CABG. The nurse notices a mole with irregular edges with a bluish color. The nurse should __________.
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A
recommend a dermatological consult to the MD
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B
note the location of the mole and contact the physician via the telephone
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C
note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician via the medical record and phone call
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D
remove the mole with a sharp's debridement technique, following charge nurse approval
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Correct answerC
ExplanationContacting the attending physician via the medical record is appropriate due to the possibility of melanoma.
Question 19
Single choice
The nurse should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?
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A
triceps skinfold measurement
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B
fasting blood glucose level
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D
serum lipid profile results
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Correct answerA
ExplanationObjective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. While all the other choices represent tests that might provide useful information, they also might be affected by variables other than malnutrition.
Question 20
Single choice
A nurse is assessing a patient's breath sounds. The patient has had a pneumonectomy to the right lung performed 48 hours ago. Which of the following conditions most likely exists?
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A
Decreased breath sound volume
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Elevated respiratory capacity
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBreath sounds would be softer.
Question 21
Single choice
Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot?
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A
A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow.
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B
A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow.
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C
A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow.
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D
A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe Tetralogy of Fallot consists of a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right, not left, ventricular hypertrophy, and right, not left, ventricular outflow. Pulmonary atresia is not one of the anatomical malformations included in the Tetralogy of Fallot.
Question 22
Single choice
When choosing a needle gauge for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy. Which of the following gauges would you choose?
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D
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Correct answerC
Explanation22 gauge is recommended for school age children, toddlers, and adolescents while 23-25 gauge is recommended for infants.
Question 23
Single choice
People who live in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from __________.
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A
their primary care physician (family doctor)
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B
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C
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D
Emergency Departments or urgent care centers
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Correct answerD
ExplanationStatistical patterns of health care utilization indicate that Emergency Departments and urgent care centers provide a large portion of health care to those who live in poverty.
Question 24
Single choice
Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationActive transport is a process requiring energy to transport ions against a concentration gradient, as is needed in the sodium-potassium pump. Diffusion, filtration and osmosis are other regulatory mechanisms involved in fluid and electrolyte balance.
Question 25
Single choice
A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?
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A
"I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."
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B
"I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."
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C
"I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."
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D
"People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."
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Correct answerB
ExplanationElderly clients on fixed incomes have difficulty meeting new expenses, such as medicine. Signs of financial abuse include unexplained illnesses that are left untreated, an inability to pay rent or purchase clothes and food, and inaccurate knowledge about finances. Financial abuse is a form of elder abuse and requires investigation.
Question 26
Single choice
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationScurvy is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. The remaining choices refer to other nutritional deficiencies.
Question 27
Single choice
The nurse is caring for a patient who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the patient to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
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D
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Question 28
Single choice
Light therapy can be effective for __________.
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A
overcoming weight problems
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B
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C
use in alternative medical treatments
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D
working with sleep patterns
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Correct answerD
ExplanationLight therapy can be effective in treating problems associated with sleep patterns, stress, moods, jaundice in newborns, and seasonal affective disorders.
Question 29
Single choice
You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is __________.
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationRepairs of cleft palates are typically done before 12 months because this allows for palatal changes associated with normal growth to occur. While repairs can still be performed after one year of age but this increases the likelihood of needing longer-termed treatments and increased risks for poor language development and facial appearance.
Question 30
Single choice
A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by __________.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy are abrupt pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain is sharp, stabbing, and might radiate to the neck or shoulder. Pressure changes caused by breathing, movement, or coughing intensify the pain. Other symptoms might include fever, cough (dry, hacking), localized tenderness, diminished breath sounds, tachypnea, and pleural friction rub.
Question 31
Single choice
The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a patient. Before administering the drug, he takes the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?
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A
Give the patient half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
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B
Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
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C
Give the patient double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
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D
Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
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Question 32
Single choice
Following the change of shift report, the nurse should analyze the information and set priorities accordingly. When the plan has been formulated, at what point during the shift can or should the nurse's plan be altered or modified?
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A
halfway through the shift
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B
at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off
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C
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D
after the top-priority tasks have been completed
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe nurse changes the plan to respond to changes in needs.
Question 33
Single choice
The doctor has ordered 20 cc an hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using a pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationYou would adjust the intravenous fluid rate to deliver 20 drops of the normal saline every minute.
Question 34
Single choice
The nurse teaching an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss should include all of the following except __________.
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A
knowledge of food and food products
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B
development of a positive mental attitude
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C
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D
starting a fast weight-loss diet
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Correct answerD
ExplanationStart a fast weight-loss diet.
Question 35
Single choice
Local anesthetics block the conduction of pain impulses to the spinal cord. Their duration of action __________.
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A
is always longer than general anesthesia
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B
is determined by the rate of diffusion and absorption at the site of administration
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C
is usually short (10 minutes)
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D
varies, depending on the client's weight
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDiffusion and absorption depend on the chemical properties of the anesthetic and other factors such as local pH and blood flow. Duration might or might not be longer than general anesthesia. Duration can be short if the type of local anesthetic is a short-acting agent. Client weight is not a factor.
Question 36
Single choice
Client self-determination is the primary focus of __________.
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A
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B
nursing's advocacy for clients.
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAdvocacy for clients by nurses is the primary focus of the client's right to autonomy and self-determination. Confidentiality involves the maintenance of the privacy of the client and information regarding him or her. Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance for professionals.
Question 37
Single choice
Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationStandard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat and are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source (environment such as the client's bedside table) to another.
Question 38
Single choice
The LPN is caring for a patient with ascites related to liver failure. The patient becomes hypotensive and complains of cramps. Which of the following is least likely related to the hypotension and cramps?
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A
decreased renal blood flow
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B
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C
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D
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Question 39
Single choice
A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
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A
"Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."
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B
"Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."
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C
"It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."
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D
"How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThere is a correlation between vague symptoms, such as abdominal pain, and battered syndrome. The astute clinician should question any woman who presents with suspicious symptoms such as these. Rarely are women offended by a properly worded question, such as, "Do you feel safe in your present relationship?" Studies show an increase in case finding when such questions are asked. It is not mandatory that all women are assessed for violence, but it is prudent that all persons new to a clinician be assessed by at least the one question noted previously. Castigating or shaming the physician typically does not improve client outcomes and might make for a difficult working environment for the nurse. Tactless comments, like the Choice "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?", are not collegial and should be avoided.
Question 40
Single choice
While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?
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A
Unplug the bed's power source.
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B
Remove the client from the bed immediately.
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C
Notify the biomedical department at once.
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationShutting off the bed's electricity should be the initial step. The nurse should not touch the client until the bed is checked for faulty grounding. An electrician should assess the equipment. Oxygen should be discontinued until the equipment is cleared.
Question 41
Single choice
A nurse is implementing a community awareness campaign about accidental poisoning. Which of the following should she teach in the class?
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A
The child should be given milk.
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B
The child should be given syrup of Ipecac
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C
The poison control center should be contacted
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D
The child should be taken to the ER
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe poison control center should be contacted first.
Question 42
Single choice
Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe epileptic client is at risk for injury due to the complications of seizure activity, such as possible head trauma associated with a fall. The other choices are not related to the question.
Question 43
Single choice
Using clich in therapeutic communication leads the client toward __________.
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A
viewing the nurse as human
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B
accepting himself as human
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe use of clich in therapeutic communication is commonly construed by the client as the nurse's lack of understanding, involvement, and caring, so the client might feel demeaned and discounted.
Question 44
Single choice
The NSAID that is comparable to morphine in efficacy is __________.
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationToradol is the first injectable NSAID equal to morphine in efficacy.
Question 45
Single choice
Most water leaves the body by way of the __________.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe kidneys, via urine, excrete approximately 60% of all water. Water, in lesser volumes, also leaves the body by way of lung expiration, skin perspiration, and through the intestines.
Question 46
Single choice
Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationMagnesium is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities and it is also needed for cardiac and skeletal muscle excitability. Chloride is the most abundant negatively charged ion in extracellular fluid with potassium being the most abundant positively charge ion. Phosphate assists in acid-base regulation.
Question 47
Single choice
When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize ___________.
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A
when started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance
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B
when started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection
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C
therapy should be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity
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D
therapy should be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity
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Correct answerA
ExplanationHIV mutates very rapidly, and any interruption of therapy can allow viral resistance to emerge ?even taking a dose late. Choice "when started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection" is incorrect because, when the virus is kept in check with anti-retrovirals, the client's own immune system is able to keep opportunistic infections at bay. Choices "therapy should be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity" and "therapy should be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity" are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If the client develops toxicity, another anti-retroviral drug might be prescribed.
Question 48
Single choice
The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they __________.
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A
cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA
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B
have few, if any, side effects
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C
are used to treat multiple types of cancer
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D
are cell-cycle-specific agents
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAlkylating agents are highly reactive chemicals that introduce alkyl radicals into biologically active molecules and thereby prevent their proper functioning, replication, and transcription. Choice "have few, if any, side effects" is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice "are used to treat multiple types of cancer" is incorrect because nitrogen mustards have a broad spectrum of activity against chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non- Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, but they are effective chemotherapeutic agents because of DNA crosslinkage. Choice "are cell-cycle-specific agents" is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents.
Question 49
Single choice
All of the following should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except __________.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDecreasing maternal fluids is the only intervention that should not be performed when fetal distress is indicated.
Question 50
Single choice
The LPN is meeting a newly hospitalized patient and suspects he may have depression. Which question would best help her assess this?
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A
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B
"How do you feel about being here?"
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C
"Does depression run in your family?"
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D
"What activities do you enjoy?"
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Question 51
Single choice
A nurse has been assigned a patient who has recently been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre' Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain- Barre' Syndrome with the patient?
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A
Guillain-Barre' Syndrome gets better after 5 years in almost all cases.
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B
Guillain-Barre' Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
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C
Guillain-Barre' Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
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D
Guillain-Barre' Syndrome does not effect breathing in severe cases.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMuscle weakness in the lower extremities is found in acute cases of Guillain-Barre' Syndrome.
Question 52
Single choice
A neighbor telephones the nurse to tell her that her child has erythema infectiosum and asks for information. The nurse knows that another name for the disorder is __________.
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe child has Fifth disease, a parvovirus flulike illness that is self-limiting but is contagious for two-three weeks.
Question 53
Single choice
A nurse is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationDigitalis can cause all of the listed symptoms.
Question 54
Single choice
Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?
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A
staphylococcus on the skin
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B
streptococcus in the nares
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C
candida albicans in the vagina
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOf the choices given, only staphylococcus is considered a normal resident of the body.
Question 55
Single choice
A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
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A
"I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."
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B
"We don't use home remedies in this clinic."
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C
"Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."
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D
"Just eat some dry crackers instead."
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThis statement reveals cultural sensitivity. Ginger is sometimes used to relieve nausea. The other statements are culturally insensitive and do not show an awareness of herbal pharmacology.
Question 56
Single choice
The intravenous route is potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration because __________.
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A
-
B
it is expensive and nursing intensive
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C
rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
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D
the client always has more side effects
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe bioavailability of the injected medication is 100% and might lead to toxicity. An IV infiltration can cause serious problems with tissue necrosis, but this is not life threatening. Expensive and time consuming do not equate with dangerous. Choice "the client always has more side effects" is not always true.
Question 57
Single choice
In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
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A
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B
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C
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D
adventitious breath sounds
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAbility to speak is a major way to identify an airway obstruction.
Question 58
Single choice
An LPN is talking with a patient scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?" What is the LPN's best response?
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A
"Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but I'm sure once you have it you won't regret it."
-
B
"It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."
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C
"It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this one."
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D
"It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."
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Question 59
Single choice
The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse's next action should be to__________.
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A
do nothing; the client has the right to refuse treatment
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B
report the incident to the police
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C
arrange an appointment with the client's next of kin
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D
educate the client about available services
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAlthough clients do have the right to refuse treatment, the nurse should remain nonjudgmental and inform the client of available services. Frequently elders are not aware of existing programs.
Question 60
Multiple choice
States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things that nursing assistants can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? (Choose all that apply.)
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A
Nursing assistants can change catheter tubings but not catheters
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B
Nursing assistants can change sterile dressings
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C
Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states.
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D
Nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients.
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E
Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to intact skin.
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F
The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns.
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Correct answersC, D
ExplanationNursing assistants have an expanding role in many states. For example, some states permit nursing assistants to take ECGs, or EKGs, and to perform phlebotomy when they are given the necessary training and have been deemed competent to do so. Only nurses assess; nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients.
Question 61
Single choice
Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
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A
Four of the levels may require physical intervention, while two of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
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B
There are psychosocial interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
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C
There are physical interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
-
D
Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
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Question 62
Single choice
A patient in the recovery room has recently had a vaginal hysterectomy. What is this patient at an additional increased risk for?
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Question 63
Single choice
In managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer ___________.
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCompazine is the drug that should be administered.
Question 64
Single choice
A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?
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A
A 8-year-old boy has been vomiting and appears to have slower movements and has a history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement.
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B
A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
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C
A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days that has history of an anterior knee wound.
-
D
A 7-year-old girl that had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe shunt may be blocked and require immediate medical attention.
Question 65
Single choice
Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?
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A
moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
-
B
promoting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
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C
promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
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D
enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites
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Correct answerB
ExplanationParathyroid hormone depresses renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus. All of the other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone.
Question 66
Single choice
An LPN is having a serious discussion with a patient who is facing a major surgery. During their conversation, the LPN is careful to pause and allow for silence. Which of these is the best reason for him to do this?
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A
It is designed to make sure the patient is actually paying attention.
-
B
It gives the patient an opportunity to think about what is being discussed and ask related questions.
-
C
It allows the patient to have a break from discussing such a serious topic.
-
D
It allows the patient to write down questions he or she has for the doctor.
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Question 67
Single choice
In administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor __________.
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationElder adults might be more at risk for gastric and renal toxicity, increasing among elder adults.
Question 68
Single choice
Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with?
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationPatients with chronic pain are often affected with drug tolerance. Drug tolerance occurs when the patient needs increasing dosages of analgesic medications to adequately control their pain in order to produce the same effect that was produced when the drug was originally begun. Drug addiction, on the other hand, is a constant and compulsive need for a drug even when the use of the drug causes harm to the person. Addiction can occur with or without physical dependence. The need for increasing dosages is not the result of medication side effects or food/drug or drug/drug interactions.
Question 69
Single choice
The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this the nurse should __________.
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A
tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
-
B
positively reinforce each expression of feelings
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C
instruct the client to express feelings
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D
challenge the client each time denial is used
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe nurse should positively reinforce each expression of feelings.
Question 70
Single choice
Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?
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A
-
B
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C
erythropoietin production
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D
reabsorbing waste products
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAll of the choices are functions of the kidneys except reabsorbing waste products. The kidneys excrete waste products.
Question 71
Single choice
A nurse is performing a screening on a patient that has been casted recently on the left lower extremity. Which of the following statements should the nurse be most concerned about?
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A
The patient reports, "I didn't keep my extremity elevated like the doctor asked me to."
-
B
The patient reports, "I have been having pain in my left calf."
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C
The patient reports, "My left leg has really been itching."
-
D
The patient reports, "The arthritis in my wrists is flaring up, when I put weight on my crutches."
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPain may be indicating neurovascular complication.
Question 72
Single choice
The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is __________.
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A
scalding from hot bath water or spills
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B
contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
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C
contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
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D
sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe most common type of first-degree burn is sunburn, underscoring the need for education regarding the use of sunscreens and avoiding exposure.
Question 73
Single choice
The PN is caring for a patient that had an open laparotomy 6 hours ago. The patient complains about coughing and a scratchy throat from being intubated. What would be the most important item to make sure the patient has at the bedside?
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Question 74
Single choice
The PN is reinforcing education with a patient being discharged with an Albuterol inhaler. The medication prescription orders the patient to take two puffs from the inhaler every 4-6 hours as needed. How long should the PN instruct the patient to wait between taking the first and second puff?
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Question 75
Single choice
A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion and the MD ordered a MRI. The patient asks, "Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?" The correct response by the nurse should be __________.
-
A
"I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."
-
B
"You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."
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C
"The radiologist will let you know."
-
D
"You will have to lie down on your back during the test."
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe MRI will require supine positioning.
Question 76
Single choice
The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is __________.
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A
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B
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C
-
D
hemoglobin electrophoresis
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Correct answerD
ExplanationHemoglobin electrophoresis is used to differentiate between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease.
Question 77
Single choice
Rh negative maternal blood indicates __________.
-
A
an incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus
-
B
that antibodies in the mother's blood are attacking her baby's blood
-
C
the mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery
-
D
the mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe mother's red blood cells lacking a specific marker indicate that she is Rh negative. However, incompatibility only occurs if the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative. This is typically not a problem with a first pregnancy, but in a subsequent pregnancy, the incompatibility can cause the antibodies created during the first pregnancy to attack the new fetus' red blood cells. A blood transfusion would have no effect on this problem.
Question 78
Single choice
Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?
-
A
"I can leave my metal jewelry on during the test."
-
B
"I need to wear earplugs during the test."
-
C
"I can have the test even though I have a pacemaker."
-
D
"I can have the test even though I have an artificial hip."
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDue to the loud noises from the scanner moving to obtain images, earplugs need to be worn. No metal objects are allowed, including jewelry, pacemakers, and artificial joints.
Question 79
Single choice
Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?
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A
-
B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationElectroencephalography is indicated for assessing clients with a seizure disorder.
Question 80
Single choice
A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, "How soon will I see improvement?" The nurse's best response is __________.
-
A
"That varies from client to client."
-
B
"You should discuss that with your physician."
-
C
"You should notice a difference in a few days."
-
D
"It might take several weeks before you notice improvement."
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Correct answerD
ExplanationIt might take several weeks of therapy for the client with Parkinson's disease to see improvement in symptoms. Choice "That varies from client to client." is also true but is not the best response to the question. Choice "You should discuss that with your physician." might be indicated but is not the best response to the question. Choice "You should notice a difference in a few days." is incorrect.
Question 81
Single choice
A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as ___________.
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSpinnbarkheit is the correct terminology to identify the cervical mucus described. This type of mucus occurs at ovulation and its assessment is used to help couples determine the time they are most likely to conceive. Ferning capacity or crystallization also increases as ovulation approaches. The only way that ferning can be identified is to place the cervical mucus on a microscope slide, let it air dry, and then examine it for a fern-type appearance. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without microscopic examination. Inhospitable cervical mucus refers to mazelike patterns of mucoid strands in cervical mucus that prohibit sperm motility. Other characteristics that make the mucus inhospitable relate to hormone levels, infection, and so on. These conditions cannot be determined by the description supplied in the question.
Question 82
Single choice
A patient has recently been prescribed Albuterol. Which of the following changes are not associated with Albuterol?
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A
-
B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationTachycardia, hypertension, and bronchodilation can all occur with Albuterol.
Question 83
Single choice
An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is __________.
-
A
a procedure for changing IV tubing.
-
B
-
C
the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
-
D
a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated on an intra-aortic balloon pump.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationProcess standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a psychomotor skill that is applied to helping clients meet their goals.
Question 84
Single choice
Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with __________.
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIll health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with cachexia. Cachexia can also result from dehiscence of a surgical incision or rupture of wound closure. Surgical asepsis refers to using a sterile technique to protect against infection before, during, and after surgery. The breakdown of tissue, especially after severe trauma or crush injuries is known as catabolism. Venous stasis is a disorder related to pooling of blood in a vein of the body; venous stasis typically occurs in the lower extremities and it is one of the many hazards, or complications, of immobilization.
Question 85
Single choice
Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?
-
A
exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night beginning at 9:30 p.m.
-
B
taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
-
C
watching TV nightly until midnight
-
D
getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThese are appropriate measure to promote sleep. Exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night beginning at 9:30 p.m., taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, watching TV nightly until midnight are all stimulation actions that increase arousal and wakefulness.
Question 86
Single choice
An LPN is having conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the nurse to proceed?
-
A
Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
-
B
Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
-
C
Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of issue.
-
D
Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
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Question 87
Single choice
Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to develop heartburn as a result of gastroesophgeal reflux disease (GERD)?
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A
-
B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIngestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. The other foods do not affect LES pressure.
Question 88
Single choice
Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationHuntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs. The remaining options are neurological disorders that do not have such movements as part of their disease process.
Question 89
Single choice
A nurse observes a client sitting alone and talking. When asked, the client reports that he is "talking to the voices." The nurse's next action should be __________.
-
A
touching the client to help him return to reality
-
B
leaving the client alone until reality returns
-
C
asking the client to describe what is happening
-
D
telling the client there are no voices
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Correct answerA
ExplanationNurses need to inform clients that there is a difference in perceptions and pay attention to the content of hallucinations. The other options are not therapeutic.
Question 90
Single choice
The patient has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Question 91
Single choice
A nurse is caring for a retired MD. The MD asks the question, "What type of cells secrete insulin?" The correct answer is __________.
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationBeta cells secrete insulin.
Question 92
Single choice
Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
D
evaporative water from the respiratory tract
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Question 93
Single choice
Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client who is unable to swallow?
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
D
total parenteral nutrition
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Correct answerB
ExplanationNasogastric feedings are most appropriate for a client who is unable to swallow. Nothing by mouth leads to nutritional deficiencies. The client might aspirate a clear liquid diet. TPN is not necessary as long as the gut is still functioning.
Question 94
Single choice
Which of the following would be least likely to present itself in a prenatal patient with HELLP?
-
A
disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
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B
-
C
-
D
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Question 95
Single choice
The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?
-
A
If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
-
B
The residual should be discarded prior to administering the tube feeding.
-
C
The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.
-
D
The LPN elevates the head of the bed at least 30 degrees.
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Question 96
Single choice
The PN is caring for a patient who has a history of exhibiting inappropriate and dangerous behavior in brief episodes. The PN is asked to suggest ways to adapt that patient's care plan to prevent these episodes. Which of the following is not an appropriate suggestion?
-
A
Allow the patient to participate in physical exercise to help decrease the patient's stress.
-
B
Promote appropriate socialization to make sure the patient is having enough personal interaction.
-
C
Change the patient's schedule daily to help the patient adjust to unexpected changes.
-
D
Ensure the patient has the same bedtime to promote adequate sleep.
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Question 97
Single choice
The PN is caring for a patient who had been the family breadwinner with a wife and multiple children prior to an accident that has left the patient bedridden. Which of these would indicate that the patient has not yet adapted to this situational role change?
-
A
The patient comments that eventually he will be able to return home and be present for his family.
-
B
The patient notes that his spouse has always been capable of caring for the majority of the children's needs.
-
C
The patient sets a realistic goal of when he will return to work.
-
D
The patient refuses the majority of assistance in an attempt to maintain control.
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Question 98
Single choice
Which of the following actions should a nurse take first for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?
-
A
-
B
-
C
Get a complete blood count.
-
D
Check the blood pressure.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe blood pressure should be checked first for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood, to determine whether the client is hypotensive. The other actions can be taken later.
Question 99
Single choice
Which sign might the nurse see in a client with a high ammonia level?
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A
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B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationComa might be seen in a client with a high ammonia level.
Question 100
Single choice
Which is the best way to position a client's neck for palpation of the thyroid?
-
A
flexed toward the side being examined
-
B
hyperextended directly backward
-
C
flexed away from the side being examined
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationFlexed toward the side being examined.
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