Free NABP-NAPLEX Exam Dumps Preview

A,C,D,E ?False ?Doxepin is a tricyclic antidepressant with H1 and H2 antihistamine activity. Side effects include sedation and anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation). Although extensively metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney, liver toxicity is very rare. Nephrotoxicity, on the other hand, is a well-known serious adverse effect of long term doxepin use.

B: A variety of drugs have been found to be of some value in the prevention and treatment of vomiting, especially cancer chemotherapy-induced vomiting. With the exception of thioridazine, most of the neuroleptic drugs have antiemetic effects that are mediated by blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors of the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla. Phenothiazines, such as prochlorperazine, were the first drugs shown to be effective antiemetic agents and act by blocking dopamine receptors. They are effective against low to moderately emetogenic chemotherapeutic agents (for example, fluorouracil and doxorubicin). Although increasing the dose improves antiemetic activity, side effects, including hypotension and restlessness, are dose limiting. Other adverse reactions include extrapyramidal symptom and sedation. A: Serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist is incorrect. The specific antagonists of the 5-HT3 receptor, ondansetron and granisetron, selectively block 5-HT3 receptors in the periphery and in the brain (chemoreceptor trigger zone). C: Cannabinoids related is incorrect. Cannabinoids are marijuana derivatives including dronabinol and nabilone and are effective against moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. However, they are seldom first-line antiemetics because of serious side effects. D: Blockage of prostaglandins is incorrect. Dexamethasone and methylprednisolone used alone are effective against mildly to moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. Their antiemetic mechanism is not known, but it may involve blockade of prostaglandins. E: H2 receptor antagonist is incorrect. Antagonists of histamine
H2 receptor block the action of histamine at all H2 receptors; their chief clinical use is as inhibitors of
gastric acid secretion.

Propylthiouracil (PTU) is recommended for treatment of hyperthyroidism in women who are in their first trimester of pregnancy by the American Thyroid Association (ATA). Methimazole has been associated with congenital malformations including aplasia cutis in rare cases and thus it is not recommended in the first trimester. The ATA recommends switching to methimazole once in the second trimester as there is a risk of liver injury associated with the use of PTU.

Influenza vaccine is recommended annually, thus, WM should not skip it this year, and B is incorrect. Also, per the CDC, seasonal influenza outbreaks can occur as early as October, however, most activity peaks in January or later. Thus, it is not too late for WM to receive his vaccine in December, thus A is incorrect.
Lastly, antiviral medications such as Tamiflu are an important adjunct to vaccinations. They are recommended as early as possible for any patient with confirmed or suspected influenza who, is 1)
Hospitalized, 2) has severe, complicated, or progressive illness or 3) is at higher risk for influenza complications. Thus, WM is not a candidate with the given information and C is incorrect. Starting Tamiflu or Amantadine is not recommended for prevention. It has indication for treatment and prophylaxis.

B: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter of the luminal membrane in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Therefore, reabsorption of Na, K, and CL is decreased. The loop diuretics are the most efficacious of the diuretic drugs because the ascending limb accounts for the reabsorption of 25-30 % of filtered NaCl and downstream sites are not able to compensate for this increased Na load. Loop diuretics are the drugs of choice for reducing acute pulmonary edema in congestive heart failure. Loop diuretics act promptly, even among patients who have poor function or who have not responded to thiazides or other diuretics. Adverse side effects include ototoxicity, particularly when used in conjunction with the aminoglycoside antibiotics. Furosemide and ethacrynic acid compete with uric acid for the renal and biliary secretary system, thus blocking its secretion, and thereby causing or exacerbating gouty attacks. A: Aldosterone receptor antagonist is incorrect. Spironolactone is a synthetic aldosterone antagonist that competes with aldosterone for intracellular cytoplasmic receptor sites. Because spironolactone chemically resembles some of the sex steroids, it does have minimal hormonal activity and may induce gynecomastia in males and menstrual irregularities in females. C: Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase is incorrect.
Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, which is located intracellulary and on the apical membrane of the proximal tubular epithelium. The decreased ability to exchange NA for H in the presence of acetazolamide results in a mild diuresis. The adverse side effects of acetazolamide include metabolic acidosis (mild), potassium depletion, renal stone formation, drowsiness, and paresthesia. D: Acts as osmotic diuretic is incorrect. A number of simple, hydrophilic, chemical substances that are filtered through the glomerulus, such as mannitol and urea, result in some degree of diuresis. This is due to their ability to carry water with them into tubular fluid. Osmotic diuretics are a mainstay of treatment for patients with increased intracranial pressure or acute renal failure due to shock, drug toxicities, or trauma. E: Blocking of the NaCl cotransporter is incorrect. The thiazide derivatives act mainly in the distal tubule to decrease the reabsorption of Na by inhibition of an Na/Cl cotransporter on the luminal membrane. As a result, these drugs increase the concentration of NA and CL in the tubular fluid. Hypokalemia is the most frequent problem encountered with the thiazide diuretics and can predispose patients on digitalis to ventricular arrhythmias. Thiazides increase serum uric acid by decreasing the amount of acid excreted by the organic acid secretory system. The thiazides inhibit the secretion of calcium, sometimes leading to elevated levels of Ca in the blood.

Categorical data includes ordinal (ordered categories) and nominal (unordered categories). NYHA I-IV and grade of breast cancer are considered ordinal data because the categories for the answer choice are in order, you can have NYHA class I, II, III, or IV. Grade of breast cancers are also in order, grade 1, 2, or 3.
Sex, Improvemnet Yes/No, Alive or Dead is considered nominal, unordered data because the answer choices are female or male, and do not have a set order.

References:
http://www.bmj.com/about-bmj/resources-readers/publications/statistics-square-one

0.2 mg/hour basal rate = 0.2mg/hour (24 hours) = 4.8 mg Demand dose of 0.1 mg ?5 = 0.5 mg 4.8 mg +
0.5 mg = 5.3 mg

A, B ?false ?dapsone inhibits bacterial synthesis of dihydrofolic acid, via competition with para-aminobenzoate for the active site of dihydropteroate synthetase. Dapsone is both bacteriostatic and weakly bactericidal against M. leprae. Neither of the listed mechanisms are the cause of these effects. C ?
False ?A substance with both anti-leprosy and anti-inflammatory activity, clofazimine is weakly bactericidal against M. leprae by binding to the guanine bases of bacterial DNA, not DNA polymerase directly. D ?
False ?See below. E ?True ?Rifampin is bactericidal by inhibiting RNA synthesis by blocking DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

The following NSAIDs belong to the propionic acid derivatives group - Ibuprofen - Ketoprofen - Naproxen -
Fenoprofen - Flurbiprofen - Oxaprozin whereas piroxicam belongs to the class of Enolic acid derivative which also includes other agents like meloxicam and Nabumetone. They are non-selective COX inhibitors and act by preventing the production of certain prostaglandins.

Primary treatment for stenotrophomonas maltophilia is SMX-TMP. Meropenem, ciprofloxacin, and
vancomycin have no coverage.

DPP4 Inhibitors, (D)Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists, (E)Thiazolidinediones (F)Biguanide
Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion.
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors stop - glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of
glucagon secretion; (iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric
emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia. Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat. Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.

References:
https://doi.org/10.1093/eurheartj/ehv239

Zileuton is the active ingredient found in the medicine Zyflo; a medicine that works as a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor. As such, zileuton inhibits leukotrienes (LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4) formation, and is used for the maintenance treatment of asthma in patients older than the age of 12. In 2 percent of patients, it raises liver enzymes. Sinusitis and nausea are the most common side effects.

Diltiazem has a major drug interaction with Simvastatin. Diltiazem is a CYP3A4 inhibitor, and since Simvastatin is metabolized by CYP3A4, its level can build up and the risk of myopathy increases. It is recommended to switch to a non- CYP3A inhibitor such as Pitavastatin, Pravastatin, or Rosuvastatin, and if Simvastatin is to be kept on it should not exceed 10 mg/day. The same interaction also exists with lovastatin, and the recommendation is to not exceed a total dose of 20 mg/day po of Lovastatin. Given the current options, the best choice is to change to Atorvstatin 40 mg po daily.

References:
http://www.fda.gov/Drugs/DrugSafety/ucm256581.htm
http://circ.ahajournals.org/content/129/25_suppl_2/S1

Seizure threshold can be lowered by bupropion, chlorpromazine, clozapine, maprotiline, olanzapine, thioridazine, thiothixene, and tramadol.

Lisinopril may increase LN's potassium. One of the warnings/precautions of lisinopril is hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors block the formation of circulating angiotensin II, which can lead to a decrease in aldosterone secretion that can result in an increase in potassium. Risk factors for hyperkalemia while taking lisinopril include renal impairment, diabetes, and concomitant use of potassium-sparing diuretics, potassium supplements and/or potassium containing salts. Potassium should be monitored closely when taking any of the other agents listed. Hyperkalemia is not listed in the warnings/precautions section for the other medications.

A type III hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complex deposition. In lupus, auto-antibodies are formed and these complexes are deposited in other tissues, especially in the kidneys, skin, and joints.
Graves disease and myasthenia gravis are examples of type II but in some classification systems they are called type V reactions. The auto-antibodies created in Graves attack TSH receptors in the thyroid, whereas in Myasthenia the target is the acetylcholine receptor. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is usually considered an example of a combination of type II and IV reactions, as T cells are directed at thyroid antigens and antibodies are also produced. Allergic rhinitis is a classic example of a type I, IgE mediated reaction.

As the patient is over the age of 60 and he does not have CKD or diabetes, his goal BP should be SBP <
150 mmHg or DBP < 90 mmHg, and he is not currently at this goal with his medication regimen. Options are to maximize the current medication dosage (option A), or to add a second agent. Since calcium channel blockers like Norvasc are recommended as initial treatment options in African Americans, choosing Norvasc over lisinopril would probably be the more effective option.

References:
http://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/1791497

Correct: E. Shigella can cause bloody diarrhea, and frequently affects young children and institutionalized patients. The pathogen is highly contagious, and is spread via fecal-oral transmission. The pathogen can lead to severe dehydration, and even cause febrile seizures in young patients. For clinically stable patients who can be managed via outpatient therapy, the optimal treatment is via PO TMP-SMX to decrease the risk of person-to-person transmission.
Choice A ?Erythromycin is the first line treatment for bloody diarrhea caused by the pathogen campylobacter. However, for the purposes of decreasing transmissibility of suspected Shigella, TMP-SMX remains the mainstay of therapy. Choices B + C ?Oral metronidazole and oral vancomycin can both be used in the treatment of Clostridium deficile. Alternatively, intravenous metronidazole can be given if the patient is unable to tolerate oral medications.
Choice D ?Oral quinolones can be used in cases of bloody diarrhea in which salmonella is the suspected pathogen. Salmonella is caused by the ingestion of contaminated poultry and/or eggs, and can ultimately lead to bacteremia in 5- 10% of cases.