Following the troubleshooting methodology, a technician implements a solution that resolves the reported issue. Which of the following should the technician do next?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOnce the implemented solution has resolved the issue, the troubleshooting process concludes by documenting the findings, actions, and outcome. This preserves the cause and successful remediation for future support and organizational knowledge. Identifying the problem, establishing a theory, and creating a plan of action all occur before implementation and resolution.
A fiber link connecting two campus networks is broken. Which of the following tools should an engineer use to detect the exact break point?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn OTDR launches light into the fiber and analyzes reflected energy from the cable path. A break produces a reflection whose return time can be converted into distance, allowing the engineer to locate the fault along the campus link. A fusion splicer repairs fiber, while a general cable tester may establish continuity without giving precise distance.
Question 3
Multiple choice
Which of the following are the main differences between ESP and AH? (Choose two.)
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AH provides confidentiality through the use of encryption.
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ESP provides authentication for IP headers and their payloads.
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ESP provides confidentiality through the use of encryption.
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AH provides authentication for IP headers and their payloads.
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AH provides data origin authorization over shared secret.
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ESP provides data origin authorization over shared secret.
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Correct answersC, D
ExplanationESP provides confidentiality by encrypting the protected payload, preventing observers from reading its contents. AH does not provide encryption; it authenticates the IP header fields that remain stable in transit along with the payload, providing integrity and origin authentication. These capabilities distinguish ESP's confidentiality from AH's broader header authentication coverage.
Which of the following would allow a network administrator to analyze attacks coming from the internet without affecting latency?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn IDS monitors network traffic and generates alerts or analysis when it detects suspicious activity. It can receive a copied traffic stream rather than sitting directly in the forwarding path, so its inspection does not add processing delay to internet traffic. An IPS is typically inline because it must actively block malicious packets, which can affect latency.
A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network. These switches must transfer data in multiple networks. Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
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Correct answerB
Explanation802.1Q tagging inserts a VLAN identifier into Ethernet frames. A link between the two Layer 2 switches can then carry traffic for multiple logical networks while each frame remains associated with the correct VLAN. A native VLAN handles untagged traffic, link aggregation combines links, and jumbo frames change frame capacity rather than network identity.
Users report that they cannot print to a specific IPv4-enabled printer after an extended power outage. Which of the following should a technician configure?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAfter the outage, the printer may obtain a different dynamic IPv4 address, leaving users configured for its previous address unable to reach it. A DHCP reservation maps the printer's MAC address to a consistent address whenever it requests a lease, preserving a stable destination for printing without manual client changes.
Due to concerns around single points of failure, a company decided to add an additional WAN to the network. The company added a second MPLS vendor to the current MPLS WAN and deployed an additional WAN router at each site. Both MPLS providers use OSPF on the WAN network, and EIGRP is run internally. The first site to go live with the new WAN is successful, but when the second site is activated, significant network issues occur. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the WAN instability?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationActivating the second site creates multiple WAN paths between locations. With OSPF used by both providers and EIGRP used internally, traffic can select one provider in the outbound direction and another path on return. This asymmetrical routing can produce unstable reachability when devices or policies expect both directions of a session to follow the same path.
Question 8
Multiple choice
A Chief Information Officer is concerned about environmental issues in the data center at corporate headquarters. Which of the following are the most common sensors installed in a data center? (Choose two.)
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Correct answersD, F
ExplanationTemperature sensors reveal overheating or cooling failures that can damage equipment or trigger shutdowns. Humidity sensors detect conditions that may cause condensation when too high or increase static-discharge risk when too low. Monitoring both humidity and temperature therefore covers the most common environmental risks to data center hardware.
Which of the following is a use case for a PaaS environment?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationPaaS supplies a managed platform on which developers can build, test, and deploy applications without administering the underlying infrastructure. Application development is therefore a direct use case for this environment. The other choices describe access methods, workload examples, or software characteristics rather than the primary platform activity.
Question 10
Single choice
Some newly installed wireless APs are not broadcasting. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
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PoE power budget exceeded
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Limited signal strength/degradation
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Uplink transceiver incorrectly configured
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Correct answerA
ExplanationEach PoE switch has a finite power budget shared across its powered ports. Once existing devices consume the available budget, newly connected APs may receive no power or insufficient power and therefore cannot start broadcasting. A VLAN assignment can affect client connectivity but does not explain an AP that never powers up.
Question 11
Single choice
A secure communication link needs to be configured between data centers via the internet. The data centers are located in different regions. Which of the following is the best protocol for the network administrator to use?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationIPSec protects IP traffic across an untrusted network by providing authentication, integrity, and encryption. A tunnel between the regional data-center gateways can therefore secure communications while using the public internet as transport. GRE and VXLAN provide encapsulation or overlays but do not independently supply the required secure communication properties.
Question 12
Single choice
A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity for a newly installed server on an existing VLAN. The engineer reviews the following requested output:  The engineer then logs in to the router and runs the following:  Which of the following describes the issue?
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The server has an incorrect subnet mask.
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There is a duplicate IP address on the network.
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The DHCP address pool is exhausted.
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The router is missing a default route.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe server is configured as 192.168.100.225 with mask 255.255.255.224, which is a /27. The router reports the connected VLAN as 192.168.100.0/24, using mask 255.255.255.0. Because the host and router disagree about the local subnet boundary, the server has an incorrect subnet mask for this existing VLAN.
Question 13
Single choice
Which of the following is the final step in the ticket management process?
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Escalating to senior management
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Performing functional and non-functional testing
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Documenting findings, outcomes, and lessons learned
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Establishing a detailed action plan
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAfter the issue has been resolved and service has been verified, the ticket is completed by documenting the findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. This preserves a useful record for future incidents and formally closes the process. Escalation, testing, and action planning occur earlier when needed to reach and verify the resolution.
Question 14
Single choice
Which of the following protocols uses the Dijkstra's Link State Algorithm to establish routes inside its routing table?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOSPF is a link-state routing protocol. Routers advertise link-state information, build a common topology database, and run Dijkstra's shortest path first algorithm to calculate the best routes for the routing table. RIP uses distance-vector behavior, BGP uses path attributes, and EIGRP uses its own route calculation method.
Question 15
Multiple choice
A network architect is implementing a VPN solution for remote workers. The architect wants to ensure that data transmitted through the VPN is protected from eavesdropping and tampering. Which of the following solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
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Correct answersA, D
ExplanationSSL supports an encrypted, integrity-protected session and can be used to secure remote-access VPN traffic. IPSec protects IP packets with confidentiality and integrity and is designed for VPN tunnels at the network layer. Both therefore address eavesdropping and tampering. AES is an encryption algorithm rather than a complete VPN solution, while the remaining choices do not independently provide both required VPN protections.
Question 16
Single choice
A company is deploying wireless access points in a different country. Which of the following should be considered FIRST?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationWireless deployments must comply with the destination country's rules governing permitted frequencies, channels, and transmission power. Those regulatory requirements determine whether and how the access points may legally operate, so they must be checked before optimizing features such as channel bonding or choosing an SSID.
Question 17
Single choice
A network technician is troubleshooting a web application's poor performance. The office has two internet links that share the traffic load. Which of the following tools should the technician use to determine which link is being used for the web application?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationTracert discovers the sequence of routers used to reach the web application by sending probes with progressively increasing time-to-live values. The returned hops reveal the outbound route, allowing the technician to identify which of the two internet links carries the application's traffic.
Question 18
Single choice
A company is opening a new site that needs to be divided into subnets that accommodate 75 hosts each. Which of the following is the most efficient subnet?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA /25 subnet provides 128 total addresses, with 126 usable host addresses after excluding the network and broadcast addresses. This is the smallest subnet listed that can support 75 hosts. A /26 provides only 62 usable hosts, while /27 and /28 provide even fewer, making /25 the most efficient valid choice.
Question 19
Single choice
A new SQL server is identified as allowing FTP access to all users. Which of the following would a systems administrator most likely do to ensure only the required services are allowed?
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Disable unused ports on the server.
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Change default passwords on all servers.
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Delete the NGFW rules that allow all FTP traffic.
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Configure server ACLs on the switches that the SQL traffic traverses.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn SQL server should expose only the services needed for its role. If FTP is unnecessary, disabling unused ports on the server removes that listening service and reduces the available attack surface at the host itself. Changing passwords does not close FTP, and changing unrelated transit controls is less direct.
Question 20
Single choice
A network technician wants to identify which DNS servers a computer is configured to use. Which of the following commands should the technician use?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe nslookup utility performs DNS queries and identifies the DNS server used for those lookups, making it suitable for checking the computer's resolver configuration. The other commands inspect NetBIOS information, address-resolution cache entries, or active network connections rather than querying the configured DNS service.
Question 21
Single choice
Which of the following is the best way to keep devices on during a loss of power?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA UPS contains stored energy that supplies connected equipment when utility power is interrupted. It can keep devices operating through a short outage or provide enough time for an orderly shutdown during a longer loss. A PDU only distributes available power, while power load and voltage are electrical properties rather than backup-power devices.
Question 22
Single choice
A user's desk has a workstation and an IP phone. The user is unable to browse the internet on the workstation, but the phone works. Which of the following configurations is required?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe working IP phone demonstrates that the switch connection and voice VLAN path are functioning. The workstation's traffic must instead be associated with a data VLAN so it receives the appropriate addressing and network access for ordinary user traffic. Configuring the data VLAN restores the missing workstation path without changing the already-working voice path.
Question 23
Single choice
Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationInternal EIGRP routes have a default administrative distance of 90. Administrative distance represents how trustworthy the router considers a route's source when multiple routing sources advertise the same destination. The value is used for route-source preference; it is distinct from EIGRP's calculated path metric.
Question 24
Single choice
A wireless network consultant is deploying a large number of WAPs and wants to centrally control them from one wireless LAN controller. Which of the following network types should the consultant employ?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn infrastructure wireless network has access points connecting clients to the wired network, and those access points can be managed by a centralized wireless LAN controller. This model fits a large coordinated deployment. Ad hoc and point-to-point designs do not provide that client-access structure, while mesh emphasizes wireless links between nodes.
Question 25
Single choice
A network engineer configures a Layer 3 switch to segment departments. The following configuration is applied: VLAN 10 Finance VLAN 20 HR Interface VLAN 10: 192.168.10.1/24 Interface VLAN 20: 192.168.20.1/24 Switchport Gi1/0/1 VLAN 10
Switchport Gi1/0/2 VLAN 20 Users in both VLANs report they cannot communicate with each other. Which of the following is MOST likely missing?
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Inter-VLAN routing (ip routing)
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe VLANs and their Layer 3 interfaces already provide separate subnets and gateway addresses, but isolation alone does not forward packets between them. Enabling inter-VLAN routing with IP routing allows the Layer 3 switch to route traffic from the VLAN 10 interface to the VLAN 20 interface. DHCP relay, port security, and STP do not provide that forwarding.
Question 26
Single choice
A network administrator needs to securely connect to an Ubuntu server for management purposes. Which of the following protocols will most likely address this requirement?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSSH provides an encrypted remote command-line session and authenticates the server and user, making it the standard fit for secure Ubuntu administration. HTTPS secures web applications, and SFTP transfers files over an SSH-based channel, but neither specifically represents the requested interactive server-management protocol. RDP is associated with graphical remote desktops.
Question 27
Multiple choice
A network administrator notices interference with industrial equipment in the 2.4GHz range. Which of the following technologies would most likely mitigate this issue? (Select two).
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Correct answersB, D
ExplanationMoving wireless service to the 5GHz frequency separates it from industrial interference occurring in the 2.4GHz range. Where 2.4GHz service must remain, choosing a non-overlapping channel reduces interference between nearby wireless networks using overlapping spectrum. These two measures address interference through frequency separation and cleaner channel allocation.
Question 28
Single choice
A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with an SMTP relay server. The engineer suspects the issue is related to a reverse DNS lookup failure. Which of the following should the engineer implement to resolve the issue?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA reverse DNS lookup begins with an IP address and requests the hostname associated with it. A PTR record supplies that reverse mapping, allowing the SMTP relay's address to resolve to a name when another mail system performs the check. An MX record instead identifies the mail server responsible for receiving mail for a domain.
Question 29
Single choice
A user reports issues accessing a file server on a LAN with the IP address 192.168.50.140 at a large facility with incomplete infrastructure documentation. The following are the results of the ping command: ping -c 10 192.168.50.140 Packets: Sent = 10, Received = 5, Lost = 5 (50% loss) Round-trip times: Minimum = 3ms, Maximum = 144ms, Average = 42ms Which of the following should a technician do next to continue troubleshooting the issue with minimal impact?
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Visually locate the fault.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe packet loss establishes an intermittent path problem, but incomplete documentation leaves the relevant cable route unidentified. Performing toning and probe work traces the cable and locates its endpoints without restarting shared equipment or replacing an unconfirmed component, preserving service while narrowing the fault location.
Question 30
Multiple choice
Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).
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Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
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Monitoring system logs for irregularities
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Enabling logical security such as SSO
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Changing default passwords
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Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
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Correct answersA, E
ExplanationDisabling unused ports removes unnecessary entry points, preventing an unneeded physical or logical interface from accepting connections. Changing default passwords eliminates credentials that are predictable and commonly shared across devices. Both changes reduce the device's attack surface directly, making them core hardening actions rather than monitoring activities.
Question 31
Single choice
Users are experiencing significant lag while connecting to a cloud-based application during peak hours. An examination of the network reveals that the bandwidth is being heavily utilized. Further analysis shows that only a few users are using the application at any given time. Which of the following is the most cost-effective solution for this issue?
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Limit the number of users who can access the application.
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Lease a Direct Connect connection to the cloud service provider.
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Implement QoS to prioritize application traffic.
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Use a CDN to service the application.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe application is delay-sensitive during periods when the existing link is congested, yet only a few users generate its traffic. QoS can classify and prioritize that application traffic so its packets are transmitted ahead of less important traffic during contention. This addresses lag by managing the available bandwidth and is more cost-effective than purchasing a dedicated cloud connection.
Question 32
Single choice
Which of the following is the best way to securely access a network appliance from an external location?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSSH provides authenticated, encrypted remote command-line access to a network appliance. Encryption protects credentials and administrative commands while they traverse the external network. Telnet sends management traffic without comparable protection, while RDP and FTPS serve different remote-access purposes.
Question 33
Single choice
Three new employees report that they are unable to access company resources, but they can connect to each other's devices. Which of the following would most likely need to be modified to resolve the issue?
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The routing table on the gateway
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The DNS configuration on the router
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The pool on the DHCP server
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The firewall on the workstation
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe employees can communicate on their local segment, so local connectivity is already functioning. A depleted or incorrectly sized pool on the DHCP server can prevent new devices from receiving valid addressing for routed company resources. Modifying that pool allows the clients to obtain usable network configurations.
Question 34
Single choice
A company is upgrading its wireless network. Currently, each AP broadcasts a wireless LAN name depending on the location in the building. Which of the following configurations allows a single wireless LAN name to be broadcast across the entire building?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn ESSID represents one extended wireless network formed by multiple access points using the same wireless LAN name. Configuring that common identity across the building lets users recognize a single network and move among its coverage areas instead of selecting location-specific names. Mesh describes AP backhaul, while band steering and WPA3 address radio selection and security.
Question 35
Single choice
Which of the following is required for hosts to receive DHCP addresses from a server that is located on a different subnet?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationInitial DHCP client messages are broadcasts, and routers normally do not forward broadcasts between subnets. A DHCP relay receives the local broadcast and forwards the request as a routable message to the remote DHCP server, then returns the response to the client subnet. A scope supplies addresses but does not transport requests across the router.
Question 36
Single choice
Which of the following would an adversary do while conducting an evil twin attack?
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Trick users into using an AP with an SSID that is identical to a legitimate network
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Manipulate address resolution to point devices to a malicious endpoint
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Present an identical MAC to gain unauthorized access to network resources
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Capture data in transit between two legitimate endpoints to steal data
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn evil twin is a malicious wireless AP made to resemble a trusted network, commonly by advertising an identical SSID. Users are tricked into associating with the attacker's AP, allowing the attacker to observe or manipulate their traffic. Address-resolution manipulation, MAC impersonation, and generic interception describe different attack mechanisms.
Question 37
Single choice
Which of the following describes a malicious application that takes advantage of a software flaw?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn exploit is code or an application designed to use a software vulnerability to produce an unintended result, such as gaining access or executing commands. The software flaw itself is the vulnerability; a threat is a potential source of harm, and risk expresses the possibility and impact of that harm. The malicious application is therefore the exploit.
Question 38
Single choice
Which of the following is a link-state routing protocol?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationOSPF is a link-state routing protocol. Routers advertise the state and cost of their links, build a shared topology database, and calculate shortest paths from that topology. RIP uses distance-vector behavior, BGP is a path-vector protocol, and a static route is manually configured rather than dynamically learned.
Question 39
Single choice
A network administrator prepares a VLAN for a new office while planning for minimal IP address waste. The new office will have approximately 800 workstations. Which of the following network schemes meets the requirements?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA /22 leaves 10 host bits, providing 1,024 total addresses and 1,022 usable host addresses, enough for about 800 workstations. The 10.0.100.0 boundary is valid for a /22. A /23 supplies only 510 usable addresses, while /21 and /20 networks are larger than necessary and therefore waste more addresses.
Question 40
Single choice
A network administrator wants to block traffic from a specific IP address. Which of the following should be used?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn ACL evaluates packet fields against ordered permit and deny rules. A rule matching the unwanted source IP address can deny that traffic while later rules define what other traffic remains permitted. VLANs provide segmentation, NAT translates addresses, and DHCP distributes client configuration; none of those functions directly expresses an IP-based blocking policy.
Question 41
Lab simulation
Simulation You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters: - The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t! The wireless signals should not interfere with each other.
- The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum.
- The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed.
INSTRUCTIONSClick on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.  
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AP1 - IP Address:
192.168.1.3 - Prefix:
/27 - Gateway:
192.168.1.1 - SSID:
CorpNet - Mode:
G - Channel:
1 - Security:
WPA - Key or Passphrase:
S3cr3t! - Wired Speed:
100 Mbps - Duplex:
Full AP2 - IP Address:
192.168.1.4 - Prefix:
/27 - Gateway:
192.168.1.1 - SSID:
CorpNet - Mode:
G - Channel:
6 - Security:
WPA - Key or Passphrase:
S3cr3t! - Wired Speed:
100 Mbps - Duplex:
Full AP3 - IP Address:
192.168.1.5 - Prefix:
/27 - Gateway:
192.168.1.1 - SSID:
CorpNet - Mode:
G - Channel:
11 - Security:
WPA - Key or Passphrase:
S3cr3t! - Wired Speed:
100 Mbps - Duplex:
Full
ExplanationA /27 subnet provides 32 total addresses and 30 usable host addresses, which satisfies the requirement. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the standard non-overlapping 2.4 GHz channels, preventing interference. WPA provides TKIP support, and 802.11g is the fastest available TKIP-compatible mode shown. All three APs must use the same SSID and key.
Question 42
Single choice
Two companies want to build an encrypted tunnel between them and use a PSK for initial authentication. Which of the following is the BEST protocol?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationIPSec is the protocol suite used to authenticate peers and protect IP traffic through an encrypted tunnel. Its tunnel mode is suited to connecting two company networks, and a pre-shared key can be used during peer authentication. VPN describes the overall solution rather than a specific protocol, while SSL and TLS primarily secure application sessions.
Question 43
Single choice
A help desk technician is concerned that a client's network cable issues may be causing intermittent connectivity. Which of the following would help the technician determine if this is the issue?
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Run the show interface command on the switch
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Run the traceroute command on the server
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Run iperf on the technician's desktop
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Ping the client's computer from the router
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Run a port scanner on the client's IP address
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe switch's show interface command exposes counters for input errors, CRC failures, drops, link transitions, and other port conditions. Increasing physical-layer errors on the client's switchport would support an intermittent cable fault and tie the symptom to the local link. End-to-end ping or traceroute can reveal disruption without identifying cable errors directly.
Question 44
Single choice
Which of the following describes the capability of a cloud service to adjust resources on demand?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationElasticity is the ability of a cloud service to add or remove resources dynamically as demand changes, often expanding during peaks and contracting afterward. Scalability describes the broader ability to handle growth by increasing capacity, but elasticity specifically emphasizes on-demand adjustment in response to changing workload requirements.
Question 45
Single choice
Which of the following requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP addresses?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOut-of-band management uses a path that is separate from the network carrying ordinary production traffic. Management interfaces reside on a dedicated network and therefore use a different IP address range from user and service interfaces. Administrators can retain an independent route to network devices even when the production data path has failed.
Question 46
Single choice
Which of the following most directly secures sensitive information on a network?
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Data-in-transit encryption
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Principle of least privilege
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Role-based access controls
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Multifactor authentication
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Correct answerA
ExplanationData-in-transit encryption directly protects sensitive information while it crosses the network by converting readable data into ciphertext. An observer who captures the traffic cannot use its contents without the required cryptographic key. Access controls and authentication regulate access but do not themselves encrypt packets in transit.
Question 47
Lab simulation
Simulation A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer’s SOHO network. The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work as intended. INSTRUCTIONSTroubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by clicking on each device and cable. Type help in each terminal to view a list of available commands. Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.       Cable Test Results: Cable 1:  Cable 2:  Cable 3:  Cable 4:  Cable 5:
 Cable 6:
 Cable 7:
 Cable 8:
   
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Cable 3: Replace the cable or shorten it to 100 m or less. Cable 4: Change the VLAN assignment to VLAN 3. Cable 6: Change the VLAN assignment to VLAN 4. All other tested cables: No remediation required.
ExplanationCable 3 measures 103 m, exceeding the 100 m maximum for standard copper Ethernet, so it must be replaced or shortened. Cable 4 is associated with the Marketing network but is assigned to VLAN 1; it should use VLAN 3. Cable 6 is associated with an Admin Staff device but is assigned to the wrong VLAN; it should use VLAN 4. The remaining cable tests show acceptable length, wiring, and VLAN assignments.
Question 48
Single choice
Which of the following can centrally manage credentials for administrative access?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTACACS+ provides a centralized service for validating administrator credentials when users access routers, switches, and other network devices. It also supports centralized authorization of administrative actions and accounting of activity. MFA strengthens login verification, but it does not by itself supply the central network-device credential service requested.
Question 49
Single choice
Which of the following network topologies involves sending all traffic through a single point?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIn a hub-and-spoke topology, each spoke connects through the central hub rather than directly to every other spoke. Traffic between spokes therefore passes through that single central point. A mesh provides multiple interconnections, a point-to-point link joins only two endpoints, and a hybrid combines topology types without requiring one traffic center.
Question 50
Single choice
Which of the following cable types allows the use of QSFP ports without requiring transceivers?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTwinaxial direct-attach cables contain fixed connector modules on both ends and plug directly into compatible QSFP ports. Because the cable and interface modules are an integrated assembly, separate optical transceivers are unnecessary. Multimode fiber requires suitable optics, while RG11 and Category 6 are not direct-attach QSFP cable assemblies.
Question 51
Single choice
Which of the following is used to capture tactics, techniques, and procedures of malicious threats in order to strengthen the network security posture?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA honey net is a network of decoy systems designed to attract malicious activity in a controlled environment. Interactions with those systems can reveal an attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures, which defenders can use to improve protections. An IDS or IPS primarily detects or blocks traffic rather than providing the same decoy environment.
Question 52
Single choice
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAdministrative distance ranks routes from different sources so the router can prefer one path over another. The administrator can configure a backup static route with a higher distance than the primary route. It remains less preferred while the primary route exists, then enters use when that route is removed after a failure.
Question 53
Single choice
A user attempts to log in to a corporate website by utilizing a shortcut. The shortcut has been used many times before. The user then notices some discrepancies on the company website. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this issue?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe shortcut can still contain the correct corporate hostname while DNS poisoning causes that name to resolve to a false address. The user is then directed to an imitation or altered site, explaining the discrepancies despite using a familiar shortcut. VLAN hopping and MAC flooding target switching behavior, while ARP spoofing redirects traffic on a local segment.
Question 54
Single choice
A network administrator needs to efficiently deploy 200 systems using RFC1918 addresses. Which of the following networks should the administrator use?
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Correct answerC
Explanation192.168.1.0/24 belongs to the RFC1918 private range 192.168.0.0/16. A /24 contains 256 addresses and normally provides 254 usable host addresses, so it accommodates 200 systems without allocating a much larger network. The 150.200.1.0 and 254.169.0.0 choices are not RFC1918 networks.
Question 55
Single choice
Which of the following devices functions mainly at the data link layer of the OSI model and is used to connect a fiber-optic cable to a network interface?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn SFP transceiver installs in the network device's SFP interface and accepts the appropriate fiber-optic connector. It converts between the optical signal on the fiber and the electrical signaling used by the device interface, enabling the network link. SC is only a connector type, while DAC and twinaxial describe copper direct-attach media.
Question 56
Single choice
A firewall receives traffic on port 80 and forwards it to an internal server on port 88. Which of the following technologies is being leveraged?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationPAT translates transport-layer port information as traffic crosses the firewall. The mapping changes an external connection addressed to port 80 into a connection to the internal server on port 88, allowing multiple services or hosts to be distinguished through address-and-port translation rules.
Question 57
Single choice
Which of the following ports creates a secure connection to a directory service?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationPort 636 is assigned to LDAPS, which carries LDAP directory communication over a TLS-protected connection. It is therefore the listed port that provides secure access to a directory service. Port 389 is associated with standard LDAP, while ports 22 and 445 are associated with SSH and SMB rather than secure directory queries.
Question 58
Single choice
Which of the following source control features allows an administrator to test a new configuration without changing the primary configuration?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationBranching creates an independent line of development from the primary configuration. An administrator can modify and test the new configuration on that branch without changing the primary branch, then merge it after validation. A repository stores content, while version history alone does not provide the same isolated workspace.
Question 59
Single choice
A network administrator needs to change where the outside DNS records are hosted. Which of the following records should the administrator change the registrar to accomplish this task?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationNS records identify the authoritative DNS servers for a domain. Changing the domain's name-server delegation at the registrar directs external resolvers to the new hosts that contain the public DNS records. Individual host aliases or reverse records do not transfer authority for the domain's externally visible zone.
Question 60
Single choice
A company has been added to an unapproved list because of spam. The network administrator confirmed that a workstation was infected by malware. Which of the following processes did the administrator use to identify the root cause?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationTraffic analysis examines network flows and packet behavior to identify the system generating suspicious communications. Tracing the spam-related traffic back to the infected workstation connects the external reputation problem to its root cause, whereas availability or baseline monitoring would only describe broader operational conditions.
Question 61
Single choice
An on-call network technician receives an automated email alert stating that a power supply on a firewall has just powered down. Which of the following protocols would BEST allow for this level of detailed device monitoring?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSNMP exposes detailed device status through managed objects and can send unsolicited traps when a monitored condition changes. A power-supply failure can therefore generate a specific event that a monitoring platform turns into an email alert. TFTP transfers files, while TLS and SSL protect communications but do not define device-health monitoring data.
Question 62
Single choice
Which of the following can be implemented add an additional layer of security to between a corporate network and network management interfaces?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA jump box is a controlled intermediary that administrators must access before reaching protected management interfaces. Placing it between the corporate network and the management environment creates an additional authentication and access-control boundary and centralizes administrative entry. In-band management uses the production network directly and does not add that intermediary layer.
Question 63
Single choice
A user's VoIP phone and workstation are connected through an inline cable. The user reports that the VoIP phone intermittently reboots, but the workstation is not having any network-related issues Which of the following is the most likely cause?
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A
The PoE power budget is exceeded.
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Port security is violated.
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The Ethernet cable is not working
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe phone requires PoE for electrical power, while the workstation can continue passing ordinary Ethernet traffic through the inline connection. When the switch's PoE power budget is exceeded, power to a powered device can become insufficient or unstable, causing the phone to reboot. The intact data path explains why the workstation remains connected.
Question 64
Single choice
Which of the following is associated with avoidance, acceptance, mitigation, and transfer?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAvoidance, acceptance, mitigation, and transfer are standard ways to respond to risk. An organization can stop the risky activity, knowingly retain the exposure, reduce its probability or impact, or shift financial responsibility to another party. Threats, vulnerabilities, and exploits are inputs or events considered during risk analysis, not response categories.
Question 65
Single choice
A network administrator needs to improve network monitoring. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
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Establish baseline metrics.
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Perform regular packet captures.
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Conduct availability monitoring.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBaseline metrics establish what normal utilization, latency, error rates, and availability look like before new monitoring results are interpreted. With that reference, the administrator can recognize meaningful deviations and choose useful thresholds. Deploying tools or collecting packet captures first provides data, but without a baseline it lacks a reliable normal-state comparison.
Question 66
Single choice
Users report performance issues on the network. A network administrator notices broadcast storms occurring. Which of the following protocols should the administrator configure to mitigate this issue?
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Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
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Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
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Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
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Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSpanning Tree prevents Layer 2 switching loops by selecting a loop-free topology and placing redundant paths into a non-forwarding state. Without that control, Ethernet frames can circulate repeatedly and multiply into a broadcast storm. The routing and discovery protocols listed do not remove redundant Layer 2 forwarding loops.
Question 67
Single choice
A company is building a new campus that will have wired and wireless devices. The network will be designed to support casual internet usage for guests and break rooms for employees. Which of the following authentication methods is best suited for guests given the requirements of this scenario?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA pre-shared key, or PSK, provides a simple shared credential that guests can enter to join the wireless network for casual internet access. It avoids the account and authentication infrastructure associated with enterprise access. WPA names a wireless security family rather than the specific credential method here, while ESP and IKE are IPsec components.
Question 68
Single choice
A user reports being unable to connect to an on-premises code repository. A systems administrator verifies that the repository is reachable from other devices. Which of the following commands should the systems administrator use first to troubleshoot the issue with the user's device?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationBecause other devices can reach the repository, the service itself is operating and the investigation should focus on the path from the user's device. tracert identifies each Layer 3 hop toward the destination and reveals where replies stop or latency begins. That makes it the first listed command for locating this device-specific connectivity break.
Question 69
Single choice
Newly crimped 26ft (8m) STP Cat 6 patch cables were recently installed in one room to replace cables that were damaged by a vacuum cleaner. Now, users in that room are unable to connect to the network. A network technician tests the existing cables first. The 177ft (54m) cable that runs from the core switch to the access switch on the floor is working, as is the 115ft (35m) cable run from the access switch to the wall jack in the office. Which of the following is the most likely reason the users cannot connect to the network?
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Mixed UTP and STP cables are being used.
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The patch cables are not plenum rated.
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The cable distance is exceeded.
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An incorrect pinout on the patch cable is being used.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe previously installed horizontal and uplink cables both test successfully, and adding the 26ft patch segment keeps the total run below the normal 100m Ethernet channel limit. The failure began immediately after newly crimped patch cables were installed in one room. A repeated incorrect pinout on those cables would break pair continuity or arrangement and prevent every affected user from linking.
Question 70
Single choice
Which of the following access methods provides a remote encrypted CLI session with a network device?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSSH establishes an encrypted remote session and presents a command-line interface for administering a network device. Encryption protects credentials and commands while they cross the network. Telnet also provides a remote CLI but lacks that protection, while a console connection is normally direct rather than network-based.
Question 71
Single choice
An office network is experiencing significant lag when accessing the company's shared drive. A systems administrator wants to investigate the cause of the problem, focusing on network latency. Which of the following tools should the administrator use first?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTraceroute measures the path to the shared-drive destination one hop at a time and reports response timing for those hops. This helps locate where latency rises or replies stop between the office users and the service. Wireshark can provide deeper packet analysis later, but traceroute is the direct first test for path-related network latency.
Question 72
Single choice
A network engineer needs to deploy an access point at a remote office so that it will not communicate back to the wireless LAN controller. Which of the following deployment methods must the engineer use to accomplish this task?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn autonomous access point operates independently and contains the functions needed to manage its own wireless service. It does not require ongoing communication with a wireless LAN controller, matching the remote-office requirement. A lightweight access point depends on controller interaction, while mesh and ad hoc describe different wireless topology relationships.
Question 73
Single choice
Which of the following ports is a secure protocol?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationPort 443 is the standard port for HTTPS, which protects web sessions with TLS encryption and server authentication. This provides a secure alternative to unencrypted HTTP. The other listed ports are associated with FTP data, Telnet, and SMB, and their port numbers alone do not identify the secure web protocol requested.
Question 74
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a default gateway?
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Resolves domain names to IP addresses
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Connects devices within the same subnet
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Routes traffic to external networks
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Assigns IP addresses dynamically
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA host sends traffic directly to peers on its local subnet. When the destination belongs to another network, the host forwards the packet to its default gateway, whose routing function moves it toward that external network. The gateway is therefore the host's next hop for destinations outside the local subnet, not a name or address assignment service.
Question 75
Single choice
Users at a small site in Zambia are getting disconnected from the wireless network as they move around the office. A network engineer sees that the site is a 2,000sq ft (186sq m) office space with an AP in the front and rear. A survey of the user devices shows the following information:  Which of the following steps should the engineer take to investigate the issue?
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Inspect the roaming configuration
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Inspect the channel widths
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Inspect the TX power levels
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe front-lobby user remains connected to the rear AP at -76 dBm, while the rear-entrance user remains on the front AP at -78 dBm. Those weak connections to the opposite AP indicate that clients are not transitioning effectively as they move. Inspecting the roaming configuration addresses how clients hand off between the two coverage areas.
Question 76
Single choice
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA switch can forward Ethernet frames with an MTU larger than the standard frame size when jumbo-frame support is enabled. This capability must be configured consistently along the relevant path so oversized frames are not dropped. A hub merely repeats signals, while a switch actively processes frames and can enforce the supported MTU.
Question 77
Single choice
A network engineer configures an application server so that it automatically adjusts resource allocation as demand changes. This server will host a new application and demand is not predictable. Which of the following concepts does this scenario demonstrate?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationElasticity is the automatic adjustment of allocated resources as demand rises or falls. Because the application server changes its allocation in response to unpredictable load, capacity tracks current need rather than remaining fixed. Scalability describes the ability to grow capacity, but does not by itself require automatic demand-driven adjustment.
Question 78
Single choice
An organization is concerned about rogue devices connecting to the network and wants the network team to implement a solution. Which of the following types of filtering should the network team use to address this concern?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationMAC filtering controls network attachment according to each device's Layer 2 hardware address. The network team can permit registered addresses and reject unapproved ones, directly addressing rogue devices attempting to connect. Content and URL filters examine requested material, while IP filtering acts after an endpoint has an IP configuration.
Question 79
Multiple choice
A client wants to increase overall security after a recent breach. Which of the following would be best to implement? (Select two.)
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Least privilege network access
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Central policy management
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Configuration drift prevention
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Correct answersA, C
ExplanationLeast privilege network access limits each account or device to only the resources required for its role, reducing exposure and opportunities for lateral movement after a breach. Central policy management provides one controlled place to define and apply those security rules consistently across the environment. Together they reduce excessive access and fragmented enforcement.
Question 80
Single choice
A network administrator thinks a change was made to mail servers at comptia.org. Which of the following should the administrator execute to verify the change?
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nslookup -type=ns coir.ptia.org
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe command dig comptia.org ANY requests the available DNS record sets for the domain, which can include the MX records that identify its mail servers. Reviewing the returned DNS data can reveal whether those records changed. Ping and tracert test reachability or path information rather than mail-server records.
Question 81
Multiple choice
Which protocol allows secure remote configuration of network devices? (Select TWO)
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Correct answersA, B
ExplanationSNMPv3 can securely manage device settings through authenticated, integrity-protected, and optionally encrypted management operations, including configuration changes. SSH supplies an encrypted, authenticated remote terminal for entering device configuration commands. Telnet lacks session encryption, while Syslog transports event messages rather than configuration commands.
Question 82
Single choice
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationGDPR governs the protection and processing of personal data associated with people in the European Union. It establishes responsibilities for handling that data, including lawful processing, security, and individual privacy rights. SCADA controls industrial systems, SAML exchanges authentication assertions, and PCI DSS focuses specifically on payment-card data.
Question 83
Single choice
A network administrator replaced a faulty NIC in a printer, but the printer is still not reachable. The printer is configured with the correct IP address, mask, and gateway, and a link light is lit on the switch port that the printer is attached to. Which of the following is the best command for the administrator to run first on the switch?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe working link light establishes physical connectivity, and the printer already has valid Layer 3 settings. Replacing the NIC can cause the device to appear on a port whose VLAN membership is incorrect for the printer's subnet. Running show vlan first verifies the port assignment and whether the required VLAN is present and active.
Question 84
Single choice
Which of the following allows a standard user to log in to multiple resources with one account?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSSO allows a user to authenticate through one account and then access multiple authorized resources without signing in separately to each one. The shared identity and session provide the requested user experience. MFA adds authentication factors, while RADIUS and TACACS+ are centralized authentication protocols rather than the general one-login capability.
Question 85
Single choice
Which of the following is used to translate private IP addresses to a public IP address?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationNAT rewrites address information as packets pass between private and public networks. It can replace a private source address with a public address for outbound communication and maintain the translation needed for returning traffic. DNS performs name resolution, SNMP supports monitoring, and NTP synchronizes clocks rather than translating packet addresses.
Question 86
Single choice
Which of the following layers in the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between nodes?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe Session layer coordinates communication sessions between application endpoints. Its responsibilities include establishing a session, maintaining the dialog while communication continues, and terminating the session when complete. The Transport layer handles end-to-end data delivery, while the Network and Physical layers address routing and signal transmission.
Question 87
Single choice
A network engineer needs to optimize network throughput for a high-performance computing cluster. Which of the following features provides the most efficiency per flow?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationJumbo frames increase the payload carried by each frame, reducing header overhead and the number of frames that hosts and network devices must process for a large transfer. This improves efficiency within each high-volume flow. Link aggregation raises aggregate capacity, but a single flow is normally assigned to one member link.
Question 88
Single choice
Which of the following allows a user to connect to an isolated device on a stand-alone network?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA jump box can provide a controlled bridge into a network that is otherwise isolated from the user's normal network. The user first connects to the jump box and then initiates the management connection to the stand-alone device from the reachable side. SSH is a connection protocol, but it does not by itself create reachability into an isolated segment.
Question 89
Single choice
A technician configures a switch port to carry traffic for multiple VLANs between switches. Which of the following port types is being used?
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA trunk port carries traffic for multiple VLANs over one physical link, commonly between switches. VLAN identification on the link keeps frames associated with their respective logical networks. An access port normally serves one VLAN for an endpoint, whereas a routed port handles Layer 3 traffic instead of extending several switched VLANs.
Question 90
Single choice
A company wants to implement data loss prevention by restricting user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage on workstations. Which of the following types of filtering should the company deploy to achieve these goals?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationContent filtering evaluates requested services, destinations, or application categories and applies policy to them. It can deny social media and personal cloud-storage traffic while allowing approved business access. Filtering only by a port, MAC address, or basic name resolution does not express the complete application-content restriction described.
Question 91
Single choice
Following the implementation of a BYOD policy, some users in a high-density environment report slowness over the wireless connection. Some wireless controller reports indicate high latency and airtime contention. Which of the following is the most probable root cause?
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A
The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency, which the new personal devices do not support.
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B
The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency without band-steering capabilities.
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C
The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequency with band-steering capabilities.
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D
The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequency, which the new personal devices do not support.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIn a high-density environment, 2.4GHz offers relatively few non-overlapping channels, so many clients compete for the same airtime. Without band steering, dual-band personal devices are not encouraged to move to the less crowded 5GHz band. Concentrating clients on 2.4GHz increases contention and latency, producing the reported wireless slowness.
Question 92
Single choice
Which of the following activities would have groups from different departments evaluate the disaster recovery process?
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTabletop exercises bring representatives from relevant departments together to walk through a disaster scenario and discuss their responsibilities, decisions, dependencies, and recovery procedures. This exposes gaps in coordination without requiring a live disruption. SLA alignment concerns commitments, while active-active is an operating architecture rather than an evaluation activity.
Question 93
Single choice
A systems administrator is resolving connectivity issues to an organization's DNS server. While troubleshooting, the administrator performs remote scans ana receives the following output:  Which or the following should the systems administrator investigate?
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA DNS server needs DNS on TCP and UDP port 53, but the scan also reports several other open services, including FTP, SSH, SNMP, LDAP, and LDAPS-related ports. Services that are not required increase the exposed attack surface and can complicate troubleshooting. The administrator should determine which of these services are unused and disable or restrict them while preserving the DNS service needed by clients.
Question 94
Single choice
A company reports that their facsimile machine no longer has a dial tone when trying to send a fax. The phone cable is damaged on one end. Which of the following types of connectors should a technician replace?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA traditional fax machine connects to an analog telephone line, which commonly terminates in an RJ11 connector. Because the damaged end is on the phone cable and the machine has lost dial tone, replacing that connector restores the physical telephone-line interface. RJ45 is used for Ethernet, SC for fiber, and F-type for coaxial cable.
Question 95
Single choice
A security engineer is trying to connect cameras to a 12-port PoE switch, but only eight cameras turn on. Which of the following should the engineer check first?
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B
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Transceiver compatibility
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPoE cameras depend on the switch supplying suitable electrical power over their Ethernet connections. Because eight cameras power on while the remaining cameras do not, checking the delivered voltage first tests the failed function directly and can reveal inadequate PoE power delivery. DHCP affects addressing only after a camera has powered on.
Question 96
Single choice
A company needs a disaster recovery solution with hardware ready but without real-time data replication due to budget constraints. Which site type is MOST appropriate?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA warm site has computing and network hardware prepared for recovery but does not maintain the fully current, continuously replicated state of a hot or active-active site. Data must be restored or updated before operations resume. This balances faster recovery than an unequipped cold site with the stated budget limitation.
Question 97
Single choice
Which of the following ICMP responses does a router send to inform a host of a better routing gateway?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn ICMP Redirect Message tells a host that a better next-hop gateway exists for a destination. A router sends it when the host used that router even though another gateway provides a more appropriate path, commonly reachable through the same local interface. The host can then update its routing behavior and use the better gateway.
Question 98
Single choice
A network technician needs to use a private Class A RFC1918 addressing scheme for user laptops on the company's network. Which of the following subnets should the technician choose?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationRFC1918 reserves 10.0.0.0/8 as the private Class A address range. The subnet 10.1.1.0/24 lies within that block and can be used internally without public routing. The 172.16.0.0 private block is historically Class B, while 192.168.0.0 is Class C; 100.1.1.0 is not an RFC1918 range.
Question 99
Single choice
Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA VPC creates a logically isolated network boundary for cloud resources within an account. Subnets, routing, and related controls can divide compute resources inside that virtual network while keeping them separate from other environments. A network security group filters traffic for resources, but the VPC supplies the broader segmentation boundary.
Question 100
Single choice
After running a Cat 8 cable using passthrough plugs, an electrician notices that connected cables are experiencing a lot of cross talk. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the electrician take first?
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A
Inspect the connectors for any wires that are touching or exposed.
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B
Restore default settings on the connected devices.
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C
Terminate the connections again.
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D
Check for radio frequency interference in the area.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPassthrough plugs can leave conductor ends exposed or positioned so they touch neighboring conductors. Either condition can disrupt pair geometry or create an electrical fault that contributes to excessive crosstalk. Inspecting the connectors first is fast and directly checks the recent termination work before replacing connections or investigating unrelated device settings.
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