What is the best initial investigation in a postmenopausal woman with a breast lump?
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What is the best initial investigation in a postmenopausal woman with a breast lump? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB
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A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. In closure can be stimulated by administration of: Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation Prostaglandin inhibitors Normally ductus arteriosus closes soon after birth. Vasodilatory effect of prostaglandin is what maintains to ductus arteriosus in intrauterine life. Hence in cases of delayed closure of ductus arteriosus, we can use p inhibitors to induce its closure.
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After starting Antidepressant drug, if patient is not improving then when you decide to stop drugs? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation Some people notice an improvement within a few days of starting treatment. However, an antidepressant often takes 2-4 weeks to build up its effect and work fully. Some people stop treatment after a week or so thinking it is not helping. It is best to wait for 3-4 weeks before deciding if an antidepressant is helping or not. If poor sleep is a symptom of the depression, it is often helped first, within a week or so. With some types of tricyclic antidepressant, the initial dose that is started is often small and is increased gradually to a full dose. (One problem that sometimes occurs is that some people remain on the initial dose which is often too low to work fully.) If you find that the treatment is helpful after 3-4 weeks, it is usual to continue. A normal course of antidepressants lasts at least six months after symptoms have eased. If you stop the medicine too soon, your symptoms may rapidly return. Some people with recurrent depression are advised to take longer courses of treatment (up to 2 years or longer)
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A 42-year-old man presents with a target shaped rash that has developed over the last several days. He was on a camping trip in the woods last week in Maine. What is the next best step in management? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation A rash suggestive of Lyme is enough to indicate treatment. A 5-cm-wide targetshaped rash, particularly with a history of camping/hiking, is enough to indicate the need for antibiotic treatment with doxycycline. A characteristic rash is more specific than serology.
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Most appropriate initial therapy for Postpartum Endometritis is: Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD Explanation The prevention of endometritis is important. Infection prevention practices, including avoiding unnecessary caesarean section, appropriate management of prolonged labour, fewer vaginal examinations during labour, use of good sterile techniques and meticulous operative procedures during delivery, and providing appropriate prophylactic antibiotics during caesarean section should be routinely practiced. FIRST CONTACT (PRIMARY CARE LEVEL) The diagnosis of endometritis should be considered when a postpartum woman has febrile morbidity (oral temperature 38.0 or on two occasions between day 1-10 after birth) abdominal pain or foul smelling lochia. Careful physical examination to detect the source of infection is crucial. Once endometritis is diagnosed, appropriate antibiotic treatment should be started. If clindamicin is not available, or not affordable, the WHO-recommended regimen of ampicillin plus gentamicin plus metronidazole should be used. If fever is still present 72 hours after treatment, the patient should be carefully re-evaluated and the diagnosis revised. If complication(s) (such as pelvic abscess, peritonitis, septic shock, etc.) are suspected the patient should be referred to higher level of health care immediately. References:
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Old patient complaining of bone and joint pain, bleeding, recurrent infections. Labs show: lymphocytosis, myelocytes 3%, and myeloblast 2%. What is the diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD Explanation Most common in Old and with usually increased WBC count and massive splenomegaly and characterized by Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome in bone marrow cells. ALL is most common in children. AML has more than 20% blasts on Bone marrow. Tip: The above patient is presented with acute Blasts crisis.
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A female presented with swelling over the neck that moves with swallowing with lymphadenopathy at external jugular vein. Swallowing diagnosed as thyroid carcinoma. She has most likely which type? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA
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Female patient with hirsutism, obesity, infertility. Ultrasound shows multiple ovarian follicles. What is the diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC
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33-year-old female complains of diplopia on upright gaze. Exam: ptosis can be seen. There are no other What is the most appropriate test for him? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation This is a wrong key. Right key should be D. CT. A case of 3rd nerve palsy. So to cause CT should be done. Red reflex is seen to diagnose cataract.
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Which of the following is most sensitive for detecting diabetic nephropathy? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation Nephropathy is a leading cause of death in diabetic patients. Diabetes may be functionally silent for 10 to 15 years. Clinically detectable diabetic nephropathy begins w development of microalbuminuria (30 to 300 mg of albumin per 24 h). The glomerular filtration may be elevated at this stage. Only after the passage of additional time will the proteinuria be (0.5 g/L) to be detectable on standard urine dipsticks. Microalbuminuria precedes nephropathy with both non-insulin-dependent and insulin-dependent diabetes.
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Prophylactic treatment of asthma in adult? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation Inhaled corticosteroids are the most commonly used and effective preventive therapy used in adults with asthma. Corticosteroids are not the anabolic steroids misused by some athletes to enhance their performance. Rather, they are similar to naturally occurring substances produced by the adrenal gland, and play an essential role in fighting stress, injury and disease. The anti-inflammatory action of corticosteroids makes them an effective anti-asthma treatment.
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A 67-year-old homeless woman presents to the ED with substernal chest pain that began shortly after vomiting. The patient has a history of alcoholism and has just finished a 3-day binge of vodka. Physical examination reveals a "snap, crackle, and pop" upon palpation around the clavicles. What is the most likely diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation Boerhaave syndrome is a full-thickness tear of the esophagus secondary to retching. The patient will have a history of severe incessant vomiting, often due to alcoholism. MI is unlikely in this patient given the subcutaneous emphysema. The other choices do not have substernal chest pain. Pancreatitis presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back upon alcohol intake, not air in the subcutaneous space.
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A 2-month-old baby who has ambiguous genitalia presents to the Emergency room with vomiting Na+- What is the most likely diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD Explanation Congenital adrenal hyperplasia autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the partial or total defect of various synthetic enzyme of the adrenal cortex required for cortisol and aldosterone production Clinical Presentation - Classic presentation: vomiting, dehydration, Hyperkalemia, Hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and fem has Ambiguous genitalia at birth.
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A 37-year-old woman presents with heavy bleeding. Investigation shows subserosal fibroid-4cm and intramu. Which is the most appropriate treatment? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation As patient is young we should go for myomectomy. As hysteroscopic myo mainly sub mucosal fibroids we should go for abdominal myomectomy which will deal with both subserosal a fibroids.
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65years man had a bowel resection 5days ago. He is anuric and breathless. His BP=150/110mmHg.He has lung bases and sacral edema. Bloods: K+=6.8mmol/l, urea=58mmol/l, creatinine=600umol/l. What is the single immediate management? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD
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A 5-year-old boy suddenly begins coughing while eating peanuts. He is choking and gagging. When he is brought to the emergency department, but he is awake and is able to give his name. On physical examination, his vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD Explanation Since the patient can cough and breathe, he should be allowed to clear the foreign object spontaneously, if possible. In the management of foreign object obstruction, if the patient can cough and breathe, it is best to initially observe and allow spontaneous resolution, since intervention may actually be damaging.
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14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. 5days later he presents with flank pain, hem urea levels. A diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis is made. What is the most likely cause for renal vein thrombo? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA
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A third-year medical student is examining a patient who has acute onset of abdominal pain. The patient is a 65-year-old smoker with HTN and DM who has had dull abdominal pain gradually building for the last 12 hours. It is not related to food nor relieved by taking famotidine. On physical examination, auscultation reveals a bruit. Palpation shows a pulsatile mass. While lightly palpating the epigastrium, the patient suddenly becomes hypotensive and passes out. What is the most likely diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation A bruit and pulsatile abdominal mass are hallmark signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The fact that the medical student was palpating the area and the patient passed out was a coincidence; however, syncope in the setting of the AAA is rupture until proven otherwise. Ruptured peptic ulcer would have more severe and sharp abdominal pain. Hemorrhagic gastritis could cause syncope, but the bleeding would cause emesis, and the patient is supine, so orthostasis is not of concern. Narcolepsy would not have hypotension. This patient's abdominal pain was from the AAA beginning to rupture and was dull and gradual in onset.
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A 10-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital because of bleeding. Pertinent laboratory findings include a platelet count of 50,000/L, prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds (control 11.5 seconds), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 51 seconds (control 36 seconds), thrombin time (TT) of 13.7 seconds (control 10.5 seconds), and factor VIII level of 14% (normal 38%-178%). Which of the following is the most likely cause of his bleeding? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA
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7-year-old boy with red color urine. Which initial test is necessary? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC
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An 82-year-old man has woken up with incoherent speech and difficulty in finding the right words. Exam: good comprehension. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation A person with expressive aphasia will exhibit halting and effortful speech. Speech m important content words. Word comprehension is preserved. The person may still be understood, but sentence grammatical.
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A person with suspicion of neisseria gonorrhoeae infection. Which test is necessary? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC
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Patient with major depression what is the first line treatment? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation A SSRIs are the initial antidepressants of choice for uncomplicated depression because of their minimal anti-cholinergic effects
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60 year's old patient has only HTN best drug to start with: Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low-dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be selected based on comorbidities and risk factors.
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A 65-year woman is found on routine CBC to have a hematocrit of 32 percent (normal 37?2) and an MCV of 70 (normal 80?00). Her stool is heme-negative. What should you do next? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerD Explanation Colonoscopy is indicated in all patients > 50 simply as routine screening. Hence, in this case, the patient needs colonoscopy anyway, regardless of what the stool tests show. Another reason to go straight to colonoscopy is the presence of microcytic anemia. Unexplained microcytic anemia in a patient above 50 is most likely caused by colon cancer. Sigmoidoscopy will do nothing to evaluate the right side of the colon and would miss nearly 40 percent of cancers. No matter what a sigmoidoscopy showed, you would need to inspect the right side of the colon. Capsule endoscopy is done to evaluate bleeding when the upper and lower endoscopy are normal and the source of bleeding is likely to be in the small bowel.
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A 29-year-old lady who is a bank manager is referred by the GP to the medical OPC due to a long history of tin in the joints. An autoimmune screen result showed smooth muscle antibodies positive. What is the most appropriate investigation? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation Autoimmune hepatitis. Definitive investigation is liver biopsy Steroid [start with high dose prednisolone].
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An 8 year's boy has his tonsils and adenoids removed. On the 7th post-op day, he comes back to the hemoptysis and fever. What is the most appropriate management? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation Most secondary hemorrhage occurs due to infection which erodes a vessel. S be admitted for IV antibiotics.
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40-year-old manual worker presents with a swelling in the groin. Exam: mass is found to be just above and l pubic tubercle. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse seen. What probable diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation Indirect inguinal hernia. [Swelling in the groin; mass just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle mea hernia. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse; it means the
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A 26 year's woman had amenorrhea for 10wks and is pregnant. She experiences hyperemesis. Now she presents with vaginal bleed. Exam: uterus=16wks, closed os. What is the most probable diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB
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A 45-year-old IV drug abuser is brought into the Emergency room with complaint of fever, shivering, malaise, dyspnea and productive cough. Exam: temp=39C, pulse=110bpm, BP=100/70mmHg. Inv: CXR= bilateral cavitating bronchopneumonia. What is the single most likely causative organism? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA
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All of the following anti-retroviral drugs produce dyslipidemia except? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation It has a neutral act on lipid profile so is suitable for those in whom hyperlipidemia
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Which of the following will have the lowest glucose level on pleural effusion? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation Rheumatoid arthritis has the lowest glucose level of all the causes of pleural effusion described here.
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A man develops erectile dysfunction after an infarction. What is the most common cause? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerB Explanation Anxiety is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction postinfarction. Although beta blockers may be the most common medication associated with erectile dysfunction, anxiety is still a more common cause of erectile dysfunction than beta blockers.
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60 years old patient has only HTN best drug to start with: Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low-dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be selected based on comorbidities and risk factors. References:
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Hypogammaglobulinemia is often present at the time of the diagnosis. Which one of the following clinical findings is NOT characteristic of chronic lymphatic leukaemia? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation Bone marrow examination is essential to confirm the diagnosis Chronic lymphatic leukaemia (CLL) is characterized by accumulation of small mature lymphocytes in the bone marrow and peripheral blood. The presenting features are persistent lymphocytosis, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.
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A female has burning sensation in vulva, after examination there was vesicle dew drop and tender and swelling in of the vulva. What is the appropriate diagnosis? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerC Explanation The risk of miscarriage resulting from chromosomal abnormalities of the embryo increases with advancing maternal age. However, it is important to note that as the number of miscarriages increases, the risk of
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Fluoxetine half-life after acute administration is ______________________________ Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerA Explanation The relatively slow elimination of fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 1 to 3 days after acute administration and 4 to 6 days after chronic administration) and its active metabolite, nor fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 4 to 16 days after acute and chronic administration), leads to significant accumulation of these active species in chronic use. After 30 days of dosing at 40 mg/day, plasma concentrations of fluoxetine in the range of 91 to 302 ng/mL and nor fluoxetine in the range of 72 to 258 ng/mL have been observed. Plasma concentrations of fluoxetine were higher than those predicted by single dose studies, presumably because fluoxetine's metabolism is not proportional to dose. Nor fluoxetine, however, appears to have linear pharmacokinetics. Its mean terminal half-life after a single dose was 8.6 days and after multiple dosing was 9.3 days.
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A 30 years' woman presents with acute headache. She complains of seeing halos especially at night. What is likely defect? Reveal answer details Close answer detailsCorrect answerE Explanation The diagnosis is glaucoma (headache and haloes especially at night). In glaucoma the vision. |