While reporting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIn defect reporting, the attribute that indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system is the severity. Severity reflects the seriousness of the defect in terms of its impact on the operation of the system, ranging from minor issues that do not significantly affect the system's functionality to critical defects that can cause system failure. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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A
The source of lest objectives
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B
The source for the actual results
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C
The source of expected results
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D
The source of input conditions
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not 1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc 2. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
Which of the following statements is TRUE'?
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A
Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.
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B
Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do
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C
Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.
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D
Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing
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Correct answerD
ExplanationStatement D is correct. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, both black-box test techniques (which focus on testing without internal knowledge of the application) and experience-based test techniques (which rely on testers' experience and intuition) can be applied to both functional and non-functional testing. Functional testing is concerned with what the system does, whereas non-functional testing looks at how the system performs under certain conditions. These techniques are versatile and can be employed to address both these aspects.
Which of the following statements best describes the objective of branch testing?
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A
Branch testing is used to verify the functionality of an application on all logical branches without knowledge of its internal workings.
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B
Branch testing is used to check the interactive reachable branches of the user interface of an application.
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C
Branch testing is used to verify the performance of an application on certain branches.
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D
Branch testing is used to execute some or all branches in the code of an application at least once.
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Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?
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A
Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.
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B
Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied
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C
Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.
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D
Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTraceability primarily refers to the ability to link test cases back to their sources in the test basis, such as requirements or design documents. This linkage allows for the determination of coverage, impact analysis, and maintaining consistency across test documentation. However, traceability does not directly enable the application of experience-based test techniques, which are more about using the tester's intuition and experience. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 does not state that traceability enables experience-based techniques, making option B the false statement.
Which task belongs to test planning?
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A
Writing test summary report
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B
Estimating test effort and resources
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTest planning defines scope, strategy, and resource estimation.
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?
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A
Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
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B
Defect reports should be created for every review found
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C
Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews
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D
Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
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Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online" The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story [a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password. [b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions. [c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered. [d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered [e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?
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A
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/ she is informed by the website about this issue.
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B
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.
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C
The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card
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D
The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAcceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) tests focus on verifying whether the system meets the specified acceptance criteria. The most critical path to test first would be the scenario where everything is done correctly (happy path), ensuring the basic functionality works as expected. The new user provides all valid data. This ensures the registration form works and the user receives a confirmation email. This test covers the basic functionality and will help verify that the primary use case is handled correctly before testing invalid or edge cases. References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Chapter 4.5.3, Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD).
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect? 
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A
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B
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
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C
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D
S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAccording to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
Question 10
Single choice
Consider the following iteration planning tasks where a tester can provide value: 1. Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks) 2. Estimate test effort for all testing tasks 3. Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?
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A
Determining the test strategy
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B
Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability
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C
Planning the testing for the release
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D
Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria
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Correct answerB
ExplanationComprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation: During iteration planning, testers provide input on risk analysis, testability, and the feasibility of test automation. Participating in risk analysis (B) helps identify areas needing more extensive testing. (A) is incorrect because the test strategy is usually set at a higher level (project or release level). (C) is incorrect as release planning is broader than iteration planning. (D) is incorrect since writing user stories is mainly the responsibility of the product owner , though testers contribute to defining acceptance criteria. Risk-based test prioritization ensures testing efforts are aligned with business needs and software risks. References: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.2.3 ?Risk-Based Testing
Question 11
Single choice
What is the main objective of test completion activities?
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A
Prepare the test environment for execution
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B
Verify that all defects have been removed
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C
Evaluate exit criteria and archive testware
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D
Update the requirements baseline
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTest completion confirms objectives met and archives all test artifacts.
Question 12
Single choice
Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?
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A
Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.
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B
Testing is performed on the entire system or product.
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C
Testing is performed by an independent testing team.
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D
Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.
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Question 13
Single choice
Which description reflects aspects of checklist-based testing?
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A
The checklist contains test cases that need to be executed in a certain order (e.g. defect-detecting test cases from previous projects).
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B
The checklist includes failure descriptions that have been found in the past which should be avoided.
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C
The checklist contains experience-based test conditions, mostly in the form of questions and based on causes of previous failures, which are used when creating the test.
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D
The checklist contains common testing techniques (e.g. equivalence class partitioning) and their uses to simplify the selection of the "appropriate" test techniques.
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Question 14
Single choice
Which of the following is a typical product risk?
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A
Poor usability of the software
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B
A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party
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C
Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests
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D
Problem in defining the right requirements
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA typical product risk involves issues directly related to the software product's functionality, performance, usability, reliability, etc. Option A, "Poor usability of the software," directly impacts the end-user's interaction with the software and is a quality attribute of the product itself, making it a product risk. Options B, "A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party," C, "Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests," and D, "Problem in defining the right requirements," can be considered either product or project risks depending on the context, but option A is the most directly associated with a typical product risk concerning the quality and usability of the software.
Question 15
Single choice
A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000. Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft. Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement
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A
It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)
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B
It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)
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C
It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)
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D
It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA defect is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function. A defect can cause harm to the end customer, the company, or both, depending on the impact and severity of the failure. In this case, the defect in the code causes the system to lock down accounts that have an overdraft higher than $1000, instead of $10,000. This can cause harm to the end customer, as they may lose access to their funds and face inconvenience or financial difficulties. This can also cause harm to the company, as they may lose customer trust and satisfaction, face legal issues or complaints, or incur additional costs for fixing the defect and restoring the accounts. References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 3-4.
Question 16
Single choice
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project. Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThis answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
Question 17
Single choice
A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:
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A
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B
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C
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D
Test monitoring and control
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTest implementation involves finalizing the test procedures, including the order of execution of test cases based on their dependencies, preconditions, and postconditions. This phase ensures that all necessary test scripts, test data, and test environments are ready for execution. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, test implementation is the phase where detailed test procedures are derived and documented, making it a critical step before actual test execution.
Question 18
Single choice
Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?
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A
Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.
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B
Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.
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C
Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.
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D
Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationComprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation: The whole-team approach promotes collaboration among stakeholders (business representatives, developers, and testers) to ensure better quality and project success (A). This approach allows for early identification of issues, enhances shared responsibility, and improves software quality. Option C is a valid but indirect benefit, while options B and D do not directly describe the core advantage of the whole-team approach. References: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.5.2 ?The Whole-Team Approach
Question 19
Single choice
Which of the following statements is true?
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A
Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques
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B
Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes
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C
Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques
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D
The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool
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Correct answerC
ExplanationExperience-based test techniques are test design techniques that rely on the experience, knowledge, intuition, and creativity of the testers to identify and execute test cases that are likely to find defects in the software system. Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the external behavior and specifications of the software system as the test basis, without considering its internal structure or implementation. Experience-based test techniques can complement black-box test techniques by covering aspects that are not explicitly specified, such as usability, security, reliability, performance, etc. The other statements are false, because: Experience-based test techniques do not rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques, but rather to identify the potential sources of defects based on their own insights, heuristics, or exploratory testing. The root causes of defects are usually identified by debugging or root cause analysis, which are activities that involve examining the code or the development process to find and fix the errors that led to the defects. Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include the source code, the design documents, the architecture diagrams, and the control flow graphs of the software system. White-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the internal structure and implementation of the software system as the test basis, and aim to achieve a certain level of test coverage based on the code elements, such as statements, branches, paths, etc. User stories, use cases, and business processes are examples of test basis used by black-box test techniques, as they describe the functional and non-functional requirements of the software system from the perspective of the users or the stakeholders. The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is not to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool, but rather to design test cases that can reveal defects that are not easily detected by other test techniques, such as boundary value analysis, equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, etc. Test automation is the use of software tools to execute test cases and compare actual results with expected results, without human intervention. Test automation can be applied to different types of test techniques, depending on the test objectives, the test levels, the test tools, and the test resources. However, test automation is not always feasible or beneficial, especially for test cases that require human judgment, creativity, or exploration, such as those designed by experience-based test techniques. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.2, White-box Test Design Techniques ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.3, Experience-based Test Design Techniques ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Experience-based Test Technique, Black-box Test Technique, White-box Test Technique, Test Basis, Test Coverage, Test Automation
Question 20
Single choice
A minimum of 0 and a maximum of 40 points can be achieved in a Certified Tester Foundation examination. With a score of 26 points to 36 points inclusive, the exam is considered "passed", with 37 points or higher it is "passed with distinction" and with less than 26 points the examination is "not passed". Which of the following sets of positive integers fully covers a 2-value boundary value analysis ? (No values from invalid equivalence classes should be specified).
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A
0, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 40
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B
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C
0, 2, 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 37
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D
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Question 21
Single choice
Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?
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A
Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.
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B
Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing
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C
The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.
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D
All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change
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Correct answerA
ExplanationGood testing practice dictates that each test level (e.g., unit testing, integration testing, system testing) should have distinct test objectives aligned with the phase of the software development lifecycle it addresses. This ensures that testing is effective and relevant at each stage. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, establishing clear test objectives that are consistent with the development phase helps in achieving specific goals and improving the overall quality of the software product.
Question 22
Single choice
Which of the following statements regarding the test-first approach (principle of early testing) is true?
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A
An approach where the tests are written only as needed.
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B
An approach where the tests are written after implementation.
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C
An approach where the tests are written during implementation.
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D
An approach where the tests are written before implementation.
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Question 23
Single choice
Which of the following metrics relates to the number of defects per unit size of a work product?
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A
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B
Average operating time until failure
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C
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D
Number of executed test cases in relation to non-executed test cases
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Question 24
Single choice
Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation ?
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A
Reduced test execution times
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B
More objective assessment
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C
Prevention of simple human errors
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D
Eliminating completely the need for manual testing
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Correct answerD
ExplanationComprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation: Test automation improves efficiency and accuracy , but it does NOT eliminate manual testing (D) . (A) is correct because automation speeds up execution . (B) is correct as automated tests produce consistent and unbiased results . (C) is correct because automation reduces human errors in repetitive tests . However, manual testing remains essential for exploratory testing, usability testing, and complex test scenarios. References: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 6.2 ?Test Automation Benefits and Risks
Question 25
Single choice
The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:
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A
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B
is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'
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C
is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'
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D
is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle, is expressed by the testing principle referred to as `Defects cluster together'. This principle states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected, or that a small number of causes are responsible for most of the defects. This principle can be used to guide the test analysis and design activities, by prioritizing the testing of the most critical or risky modules, or by applying more rigorous test techniques to them. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.2.1, page 11; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 16.
Question 26
Single choice
The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing" is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?
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A
Sequential development model.
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B
Iterative development model.
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C
Incremental development model.
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe principle of early testing is applicable to all recognized software development models, including sequential, iterative, and incremental models. Starting test activities early in the lifecycle helps in identifying and addressing defects as soon as possible, which can save time and costs by preventing defects from propagating to later stages of development. This proactive approach enhances the overall quality and efficiency of the software development process. References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.3
Question 27
Single choice
A test score indicator for students produces a performance score based on a combination of the number of consecutive hours studied (below 4 hours, 4 to 8 hours. 9 to 12 hours or above 12 hours) and the average intensity of focus on the material during the study time (low, medium or high). Given the following test cases: hours intensity score T1 3 low55 T2 14 high 95 T3 9 low75 What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationConsidering the various valid input equivalence partitions of hours studied and intensity, three additional test cases are needed to fully cover all valid partitions. This would typically include testing combinations that vary both the number of hours and the intensity levels not covered by the initial test cases (ISTQB Main Web). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 PDF
Question 28
Single choice
Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?
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A
Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant
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B
It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.
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C
It is the quadrant that component testing
-
D
It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios
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Question 29
Single choice
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:
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A
Test monitoring and control
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThis answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3
Question 30
Single choice
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?
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A
It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.
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B
It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration
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C
It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.
-
D
It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe whole team approach, often advocated in Agile methodologies, emphasizes collaboration and collective responsibility among all team members. This approach enhances the relationships within the team and improves overall collaboration, which in turn benefits the project's success. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, the whole team approach fosters better communication and cooperation, leading to more effective problem-solving and higher-quality outcomes.
Question 31
Single choice
In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?
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A
Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface
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B
Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function
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C
Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system
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D
Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions
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Correct answerB
ExplanationConfirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is performed to verify that specific defects have been successfully fixed. Option A: "Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface" would typically involve regression testing, not confirmation testing. Option B: "Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function" fits the description of confirmation testing as it focuses on ensuring that specific issues have been addressed. Option C: "Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system" is an example of regression testing, as it checks the overall system behavior after an update. Option D: "Testing to ensure the adding of new functionalities haven't broken existing functions" is another example of re (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy) it checks for unintended consequences of new changes. Therefore, the correct answer is B References: Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
Question 32
Single choice
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
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A
Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.
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B
Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
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C
Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.
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D
Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEffort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity, and quality of the software product and the testing activities. Budget is a constraint that may affect the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured in terms of person-hours, person-days, or person-months. The other options are correct because: A. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up, as they are interrelated aspects of the test planning process. Resources are the people, tools, equipment, and facilities needed to perform the testing activities. Schedule is the time frame and sequence of the testing activities, aligned with the project milestones and deadlines. B. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known, as it affects the number and severity of the defects that may be found and the rework that may be needed to fix them. Quality is the degree to which the software product satisfies the specified requirements and meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients. D. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques, which relies on the judgment and expertise of the testers and other project stakeholders to estimate the test effort based on similar projects or tasks done in the past. Experience based estimation can be useful when there is a lack of historical data, formal methods, or detailed information about the software product and the testing activities. References: 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159 7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16 8 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160 9 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161
Question 33
Single choice
Given the following requirement: 1. Requirement ID: 2 8 2. Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee 3. Detailed Description An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but 1. Visitors aged under 7 are not charged. 2. Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee. 3. Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee. Age should be an integer of 0 or above. Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
-
A
Thursday is a valid input boundary value.
-
B
A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.
-
C
$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.
-
D
7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBoundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be applied to both input and output values. Based on the given requirement, we can identify two input values: age and weekend. Age should be an integer of 0 or above, and weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. The following statement is not correct: A) Thursday is a valid input boundary value. This statement is not correct, as Thursday is not a boundary value for the input weekend. The boundary values for the input weekend are Friday and Sunday, as they are at the edge of the equivalence partition that represents weekend days. The following statements are correct: B) A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age. This statement is correct, as we can derive six valid test cases based on input age by using the minimum and maximum values for each equivalence partition defined by the requirement. The equivalence partitions for input age are: under 7 (0 to 6), 7 to 13 inclusive (7 to 13), and greater than 65 (66 and above). The minimum and maximum values for each partition are: 0 and 6, 7 and 13, and 66 and any value above it. C) $3.01 is a valid output boundary value. This statement is correct, as $3.01 is a boundary value for the output additional fee. The additional fee can have four possible values depending on the input age: $0 (for visitors aged under 7), $2.40 (for visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive with a 20% discount), $1.50 (for visitors aged greater than 65 with a 50% discount), and $3 (for visitors aged between 14 and 65). The boundary values for the output additional fee are $0 and $3, as they are at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Therefore, $3.01 is a valid output boundary value, as it is at the smallest incremental distance above $3. D) 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10. This statement is correct, as 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition that represents visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive. This partition includes age 10, which is an internal value within the partition. References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.
Question 34
Single choice
A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort. i:. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis ii:. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level iii:. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed iv: Extensive product documentation v:. More use of exploratory testing Which of the following statements is MOST correct?
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A
i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models
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B
ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models
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C
iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i. ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models
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D
ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models
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Question 35
Single choice
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?
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A
-
B
Cost of testing performed so far
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C
Confidence of testers in tested code
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D
Number of unfixed defects
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Correct answerA
ExplanationTest exit criteria are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can be concluded. Test exit criteria are usually defined in the test plan and agreed by the stakeholders. Test exit criteria can be based on various factors, such as test coverage, defect status, quality level, risk level, etc. Test schedules would be the least likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria, because test schedules are not directly related to the quality or performance of the software product, but rather to the time or resources allocated for testing. Test schedules can be used as the basis for test entry criteria, which are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can start. The other options are more likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria. Cost of testing performed so far can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the return on investment or the cost-benefit ratio of testing. Confidence of testers in tested code can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can reflect the level of satisfaction or assurance of the testers about the quality or reliability of the software product. Number of unfixed defects can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the level of risk or impact of the remaining defects on the software product. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 13.
Question 36
Single choice
Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?
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A
Debugging identifies the cause of a failure
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B
Debugging is often performed by test engineers
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C
Debugging is considered part of the testing activities
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D
Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code
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Correct answerA
ExplanationDebugging is the process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. Debugging is not considered part of testing, but rather a development activity that can involve testing. Debugging is not intended to find as many defects as possible, but rather to fix the specific failure that was observed. Debugging is usually performed by developers, not by test engineers. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 6.
Question 37
Single choice
For the same financial institution in question12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?
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A
R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.
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B
R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.
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C
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationFor boundary value analysis, the test cases should include the boundary values just inside and just outside the equivalence partition for the 13% interest rate range: R100,000 (just inside the previous range) R100,001 (start of the 13% range) R500,000 (end of the 13% range) R500,001 (just outside the range) These values ensure that both the edges of the partition are tested.
Question 38
Single choice
Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?
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A
DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing
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B
DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing
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C
DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics
-
D
DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing
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Question 39
Single choice
Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?
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A
skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.
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B
skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.
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C
problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.
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D
poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationProject risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are: Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity. Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality. Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction. The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are: Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders. Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.
Question 40
Single choice
In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks. Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered? I:.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks. ii:.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset. iii:.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations. iv:.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationIn Agile teams, close collaboration among testers and other team members can lead to organizational risks such as: ii. Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset. iv. Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team. These risks highlight the potential issues of diminished testing perspective and team turnover when testers integrate closely with developers and other roles.
Question 41
Single choice
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A
promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
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B
is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
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C
promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
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D
is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThis answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1
Question 42
Single choice
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?
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A
The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved
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B
The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects
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C
For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards
-
D
The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTesting is necessary for various reasons, such as: To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders' needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary: A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage. C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks. D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary: B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.
Question 43
Single choice
Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?
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A
Tools to assess data quality
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B
Tools to support usability testing
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C
Tools to support specialized testing needs
-
D
Tools to support static testing
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Correct answerD
ExplanationStatic testing refers to testing that doesn't involve executing code. It includes activities like reviews, inspections, and static analysis. Tools that support static testing help with activities such as analyzing source code, checking coding standards, and aiding in document reviews. These tools can automate or facilitate various aspects of static testing processes, such as highlighting potential issues in code or documents without executing the software. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 6.1.1.
Question 44
Single choice
A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules. Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?
-
A
-
B
-
C
Absence-of-errors fallacy
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationDefect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives. Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.
Question 45
Single choice
Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?
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A
The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are
-
B
Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.
-
C
Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.
-
D
Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe correct statement is B. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, the testing quadrants help to categorize tests based on their purpose and whether they are technology-facing or business-facing, and whether they support the team or critique the product. Quadrant Q2 includes tests that are business-facing and support the team, such as automated acceptance tests produced during Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) Quadrant Q3 includes business-facing tests that critique the product, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing. These tests are typically manual and focus on evaluating the product from a user perspective, rather than being part of a continuous integration process. Quadrant Q4 includes technology-facing tests that critique the product, such as performance tests, security tests, and other non-functional tests, which can be automated but are not related to unit tests produced during TDD .
Question 46
Single choice
Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?
-
A
Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.
-
B
Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.
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C
When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.
-
D
Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationWhile configuration management is crucial for maintaining consistent versions of software artifacts and supporting the build process, it does not directly increase the chances of finding defects in the software under test. Version-controlled test ware ensures that the correct versions of test cases and other test artifacts are used, but it is the quality and thoroughness of the tests that determine the effectiveness of defect detection. References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.4
Question 47
Single choice
An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?
-
A
Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.
-
B
Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner
-
C
Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.
-
D
Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better
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Question 48
Single choice
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects [i]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads. [ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user, [iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan. [iv]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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A
[ii] and [iv] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks
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B
[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [iv] are project risks.
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C
[i], and [iv] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks
-
D
[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [iv] is a project risk.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationIn software testing, risks are categorized into product risks and project risks. Product risks are associated with the potential of a product to fail in meeting its quality criteria. Project risks are related to potential issues that could affect the project's ability to deliver a product. [i] is a project risk because it concerns the availability and adequacy of hardware resources for performance testing. [ii] is a product risk because it pertains to a security and functionality issue within the web application. [iii] is a project risk because it involves the availability of necessary requirements documentation for the testing process. [iv] is a product risk because it relates to the system's functionality and data integrity after a failure. Thus, statement A correctly classifies [ii] and [iv] as product risks and [i] and [iii] as project risks.
Question 49
Single choice
Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?
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A
Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.
-
B
Static testing reduces testing costs and time.
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C
Static testing increases development costs and time.
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D
Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe statement that "static testing increases development costs and time" is NOT correct. Static testing actually helps to reduce development costs and time by identifying defects early in the development process before dynamic testing is performed. Early detection of defects reduces the cost and effort required to fix them and prevents the propagation of defects to later stages, thus reducing overall testing and development costs. References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section 3.1.2, "The Value of Static Testing."
Question 50
Single choice
Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?
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A
More subjective assessment
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B
Reduction in repetitive manual work
-
C
Availability of the test automation tool vendor
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D
Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTest automation provides numerous benefits to software testing, and one of the key advantages is the reduction of repetitive manual work. This benefit is explicitly covered in the ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus (v4.0). Test automation allows testers to automate repetitive tasks such as regression testing, freeing up their time to focus on more complex and exploratory testing. This leads to improved efficiency and helps in avoiding human errors associated with repetitive tasks. Option A: "More subjective assessment" contradicts the benefit of automation as it focuses on objectivity. Option C: "Availability of the test automation tool vendor" is not a direct benefit of test automation, although vendor support can be valuable. Option D: "Negligible effort to maintain the test assets" is misleading as maintaining automated tests often requires effort and attention to changes in the system under test. Therefore, the correct answer is B (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (ISTQB). References: Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
Question 51
Single choice
Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?
-
A
The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.
-
B
The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states
-
C
Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales
-
D
All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationState transition testing is a black-box testing technique used to analyze the behavior of a system by examining the transitions between different states in response to events. In state transition testing, a state table or diagram is used to represent the states of a system and the transitions between these states triggered by events. Option D is correct because in state transition testing, all transitions between states should be explicitly shown in the state table. This includes valid transitions that the system is expected to make under normal operation and, where relevant, invalid transitions that should be tested to ensure the system handles unexpected or erroneous inputs gracefully. The state table provides a comprehensive view of how the system should behave, making it possible to create tests that cover all defined transitions.
Question 52
Single choice
Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE? I: Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed. II: Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed. III:. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level. IV: Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe following statements about re-testing and regression testing are true: I) Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed. Re-testing is a type of testing that verifies that a defect has been successfully resolved by executing a test case that previously failed due to that defect. Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed and delivered to ensure that it does not cause any new failures or side effects. III) Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level. Re-testing and regression testing are not limited to a specific test level, but can be applied at any level depending on the context and objectives. For example, re-testing and regression testing can be performed at unit level, integration level, system level or acceptance level. IV) Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing may include various types of testing depending on the scope and purpose of the changes. For example, regression testing may include functional testing to check if the software meets its requirements, non-functional testing to check if the software meets its quality attributes, or structural testing to check if the software meets its design or code standards. The following statement about re-testing and regression testing is false: II) Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed. Regression testing is not always necessary after a defect is fixed, as some defects may have a low impact or low likelihood of affecting other parts of the software. Regression testing should be performed after a defect is fixed only if there is a risk of introducing new defects or causing existing defects due to the changes made to fix the defect. References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 19 Chapter 4, page 45.
Question 53
Single choice
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report: Id T000561 Test Object "Warehouse Management' application Tester name; John Bishop Date: 10th. April 2010 Test Case MRT558I Status OPEN Severity Serious Priority Problem-After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction: Developer name: Closing date: Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?
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A
The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
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B
The version of the application is missing
-
C
There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
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D
The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
Question 54
Single choice
An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
-
A
The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect
-
B
The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.
-
C
The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.
-
D
The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationIn software testing terminology, a failure is an observable deviation of the software from its expected behavior. A defect (or bug) is the cause of the failure in the software's code. In this case, the observed slowdown is the failure, while the underlying memory leak in the application code is the defect causing this failure. This distinction is clearly outlined in the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, which differentiates between failures (observable issues) and defects (underlying issues in the code).
Question 55
Single choice
During which review process activity are the exit criteria for an inspection defined?
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A
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B
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Communication and analysis
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D
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Question 56
Single choice
ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows: 1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access 2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access 3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access. What would be the results for: A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience
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A
A - unknown B - limned access C- unknown
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B
A - full access B - limited access C - unknown
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C
A - full access B - limited access C - limited access
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D
A - unknown B - full access C - unknown
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe correct answer can be derived by applying the given rules to each case: A is ST certified and has 12 years of testing experience, which is more than 10 years. Therefore, A does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown. B is not ST certified and has 7 years of testing experience, which is between 5 and 10 years. Therefore, B matches rule 3 and the result is limited access. C is not ST certified and has 3 years of testing experience, which is less than 5 years. Therefore, C does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown. Verified References: This question does not require any external references, as it is based on logical reasoning.
Question 57
Single choice
Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?
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A
The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change
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They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency
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C
Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.
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D
The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders
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Question 58
Single choice
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE? I: Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. II: Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. III: Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. IV: The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true: II: Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way. III: Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false: I" Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested. IV: The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
Question 59
Single choice
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing. I. Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks. II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis. V. The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks
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I III IV and V are true. II is false.
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II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.
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C
C. I, II and IV are true III and V are false . .
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D
II, Ill and V are true 1 . ants Iv are false.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe following statements about risk-based testing are correct: II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on risk level, which reflects both the likelihood and impact of defects or failures. Tests with higher risk level should be executed earlier than tests with lower risk level, in order to find and fix critical defects as soon as possible. III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. Risk-based testing does not only involve testing activities, but also other activities that can help mitigate risks, such as reviews, inspections, audits, simulations or prototyping.
Question 60
Single choice
Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?
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A
Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.
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B
Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.
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C
Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.
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D
Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.
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E
TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationConfirmation testing, also known as retesting, is conducted to verify that specific defects have been fixed. Regression testing, on the other hand, is performed to ensure that recent changes have not adversely affected existing features of the software. Both types of testing are crucial for maintaining the integrity and quality of the software after modifications.
Question 61
Single choice
Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?
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A
Code is refactored first then tests are written and run
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B
Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run
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C
Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests
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D
First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated
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Question 62
Single choice
You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report: 1. The expected results 2. The actual results 3. The urgency and priority to fix this 4. The date and author of the defect report 5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationWhen developers are trying to identify and remove a defect, they need clear information on what went wrong and what was expected. The items that will be most useful to developers in this context are the expected results (item 1), the actual results (item 2), and a description of the defect including steps to reproduce, screenshots, and database dumps (item 5). This information helps developers understand the nature of the defect and provides the necessary details to reproduce and diagnose the issue effectively. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 5.5.1.
Question 63
Single choice
In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?
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A
Retirement of the software or system
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B
Modifications to a released software or system
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C
Migration of the system data to a replacement system
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D
Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase
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Correct answerD
ExplanationMaintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various situations, such as modifications to a released software or system, migration of the system data to a replacement system, or retirement of the software or system. Maintenance testing is not executed when there is an update to the maintainability requirements during the development phase, as this is not a maintenance situation but rather a change request that should be handled by the development process. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 18-19.
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