In accordance with Michael E Porter's generic strategies model, a firm with a broad competitive scope that has high sales volume, low margins, and efficient supply and distribution channels will most likely choose a
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A
Cost leadership strategy.
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B
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C
Differentiation strategy.
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D
Focused differentiation strategy.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationCost leadership is the generic strategy favored by firms that seek competitive advantage through lower costs and that have a broad competitive scope. Such a firm can earn higher profits than its competitors at the industry average price or charge a lower price to increase market share. The typical firm that follows a cost leadership strategy has low profit margins, a high volume of sales, and a substantial market share. Such a firm has efficient supply and distribution channels; is capable of large capital investment; if it is a manufacturer, has strengths in product design and process engineering; and closely supervises its labor force.
Senior management has decided to implement the Three Lines of Defense model for risk management. Which of the following best describes senior management's duties with regard to this model?
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A
Ensure compliance with the model.
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B
Identify management functions.
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C
Identify emerging issues.
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D
Set goals for implementation.
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An organization selected a differentiation strategy to compete at the business level. Which of the following structures best fits this strategic choice?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Functional structure with cross-functional teams.
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Which of the following is an example of framing error? I. A job seeker may hope that the attractive appearance of a resume will sway the judgment of a potential employer. II. A glass still holds 50% of its capacity whether the glass is described as half full or half empty. However, the former (latter) characterization may lead to a more (less) favorable opinion of the content.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationFraming error is a perceptual problem. The presentation or context of information may bias its interpretation and the resulting decision. Thus, favorably (unfavorably) presented information may be viewed more (less) favorably than its merits warrant. Both I and II are examples of framing errors.
Senior management of a dairy organization asks the internal audit function to undertake an advisory service within the finance function and the internal audit function subsequently issues a report. Which of the following is aligned with IIA guidance on monitoring the results of such an engagement?
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A
Senior management should dedicate a team to carry out a follow-up audit
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B
A member of the finance function should undertake follow-up in line with the scope
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C
Follow-up on the outcome of advisory services is not required
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D
The internal audit function should agree with senior management on the scope of a follow-up
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAccording to the IIA Standards, follow-up is mandatory only for assurance engagements, where corrective action plans are agreed and tracked. Advisory services are intended to add value and offer recommendations but do not require formal follow-up by internal audit. Responsibility for implementing recommendations lies with management. Options A and B improperly delegate follow-up responsibilities, and Option D incorrectly suggests mandatory follow-up for advisory engagements. References: IIA Standards - Standard 2500: Monitoring Progress (applies to assurance, not advisory services).
An organization decided to outsource its human resources function. As part of its process migration, the organization is implementing controls over sensitive employee data. What would be the most appropriate directive control in this area?
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A
Require a Service Organization Controls (SOC) report from the service provider
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B
Include a data protection clause in the contract with the service provider
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C
Obtain a nondisclosure agreement from each employee at the service provider who will handle sensitive data
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D
Encrypt the employee's data before transmitting it to the service provider
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A global industry is one that:
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A
Contains competitors that are multinationals.
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B
Has secured a competitive advantage based on economies of scale in centralized production.
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C
Has a strategic advantage by establishing coordinated competition in many national markets.
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D
Has made large direct investments abroad.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe analysis of a competition in an industry requires consideration of the economics of the industry and the characteristics of competitors. However, in a global industry, the analysis is not limited to one market, but extends to all markets (geographic or national) taken together. Michael E. Porter defines a global industry as one in which the strategic positions of competitors in major geographic or national markets are fundamentally affected by their overall global positions."Thus, an industry becomes global because it perceives a net strategic advantage to competing, as Porter says, in a coordinated way in many national markets."
Which of the following best describes a market signal?
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A
The bargaining power of buyers is forcing a drop in market prices.
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B
There is pressure from the competitor's substitute products.
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C
Strategic analysis by the organization indicates feasibility of expanding to new market niches.
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D
The competitor announces a new warranty program.
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Which of the following are typical responsibilities for operational management within a risk management program? 1. Implementing corrective actions to address process deficiencies. 2. Identifying shifts in the organization's risk management environment. 3. Providing guidance and training on risk management processes. 4. Assessing the impact of mitigation strategies and activities.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 10
Single choice
A corporation produces uniforms that it sells and rents to businesses. The corporation recently acquired a textile mill that produces synthetic cloth. This acquisition is an example of:
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A
Horizontal integration Forward integration
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B
Horizontal integration Backward integration
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C
Vertical integration Forward integration
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D
Vertical integration Backward integration
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe degree of backward and forward vertical integration along the value chain varies with the industry. The corporation acquired one of its suppliers, which is on a different level of the value chain. Thus, the combination involved vertical integration. Moreover, the acquisition of a supplier is characteristic of backward integration.
Question 11
Single choice
Which of the following should be included in a data privacy poky? 1. Stipulations for deleting certain data after a specified period of time. 2. Guidance on acceptable methods for collecting personal data. 3. A requirement to retain personal data indefinitely to ensure a complete audit trail, 4. A description of what constitutes appropriate use of personal data.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA data privacy policy outlines how an organization collects, stores, processes, and protects personal data. It should comply with global data protection regulations such as GDPR, CCPA, and IIA guidelines on data security. (1) Stipulations for deleting certain data after a specified period of time. Correct. Many data protection laws (e.g., GDPR Article 5 ) require organizations to delete personal data after a defined retention period to reduce data breach risks. (2) Guidance on acceptable methods for collecting personal data. Correct. A privacy policy must define legal and ethical ways to collect personal data (e.g., user consent, lawful processing). (3) A requirement to retain personal data indefinitely to ensure a complete audit trail. Incorrect. Retaining personal data indefinitely violates most data privacy regulations (e.g., GDPR Right to Be Forgotten ). Data must be stored only for as long as necessary. (4) A description of what constitutes appropriate use of personal data. Correct. A privacy policy should clearly define how collected data can and cannot be used to prevent misuse and ensure compliance. IIA GTAG - "Auditing Privacy Risk"; IIA Standard 2110 - "Governance (Data Protection&; Privacy) GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) - "Articles 5&; 17 (Data Retention&; Deletion) Analysis of Answer Choices:IIA References:Thus, the correct answer is C (1, 2, and 4 only) because data should not be retained indefinitely , and the policy must include data collection, retention, and appropriate usage guidelines .
Question 12
Single choice
Which of the following is least appropriate with regard to management's approach to informal group or grapevine communication? Management should:
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A
Use informal group information to supplement communication channels of the formal organization.
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B
Try to suppress informal group information as a possible source of conflicting information.
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C
Take advantage of informal group information as a device to correct misinformation.
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D
Make use of informal group information as a means of transmitting information not appropriate for formal communication channels.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSuppressing grapevine networks is difficult, if not impossible. Recognizing that the grapevine exists and can be used effectively for several kinds of messages makes better managerial sense.
Question 13
Single choice
Which of the following inventory costing methods requires the organization to account for the actual cost paid for the unit being sold?
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A
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B
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C
First-in-first-out (FIFO)
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D
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Question 14
Single choice
An Internal Audit Department adopts a training posture that provides training to management on fraud awareness, including an overview of the corporate fraud policy and hotline. This training posture best demonstrates that the Internal Audit Department is taking which of the four leadership roles?
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A
Path finding, which focuses on a purpose and how to achieve it.
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B
Aligning, which focuses on how to align systems and processes to achieve a purpose.
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C
Empowering, which focuses on how to cultivate people to have the right authority, responsibility, and commitment to best help achieve a purpose.
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D
Modeling, which focuses on how to demonstrate the values to convince others to follow an example and take responsibility for achieving a purpose.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEmpowering is the best answer because fraud awareness training as noted in the question provides individuals with the information and guidance they need to take responsibility and commit to tasks required to achieve a purpose. Fraud awareness training makes sure they know policy and how to report suspected issues.
Question 15
Single choice
Which one of the following techniques is not generally recognized as an effective conflict resolution technique for management to use in a dispute between employees?
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A
Accommodation - management encourages a high degree of cooperation and a low degree of assertiveness.
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B
Competition - management encourages the parties to seek their own interests, regardless of the effect on each other.
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C
Reorganization - management transfers one of the disputants to another department.
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D
Compromise - management persuades each party to make concessions.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCompetition is a conflict-handling intention characterized by considerable assertiveness (the degree to which the party seeks to achieve his/her goals) and a low degree of cooperativeness (the degree to which the party attempts to satisfy the concerns of others). Encouraging competition stimulates conflict.
Question 16
Single choice
Which of the following would be a concern related to the authorization controls utilized for a system?
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A
Users can only see certain screens in the system.
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B
Users are making frequent password change requests.
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C
Users Input Incorrect passwords and get denied system access
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D
Users are all permitted uniform access to the system.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAuthorization controls ensure that users have appropriate access levels based on their roles and responsibilities. The primary concern arises when all users have uniform access , as it violates the principle of least privilege (PoLP) and increases the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches . (A) Users can only see certain screens in the system. Incorrect. This is a good security practice , as it limits user access based on job roles, preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information. (B) Users are making frequent password change requests. Incorrect. Frequent password resets might indicate poor password management but are not directly related to authorization controls. (C) Users input incorrect passwords and get denied system access. Incorrect. This indicates authentication issues, not an authorization control concern. If users are denied access due to incorrect passwords, the system's authentication mechanisms are working correctly. (D) Users are all permitted uniform access to the system. Correct. Authorization should be role-based, meaning different users should have different levels of access depending on their responsibilities. Uniform access violates security best practices and increases the risk of fraud, data misuse, and compliance violations. IIA GTAG "Identity and Access Management" emphasizes that authorization controls should be based on job functions to prevent unnecessary exposure to sensitive data. IIA Standard 2120 - Risk Management highlights the importance of access control policies to mitigate cybersecurity risks. IIA GTAG - "Identity and Access Managemen"; IIA Standard 2120 - Risk Management COBIT Framework - Access Control and Identity Management Analysis of Answer Choices:IIA References:Thus, the correct answer is D , as uniform access across all users is a major security concern in authorization control.
Question 17
Single choice
When uncertainty about an industry's future is greatest and other markets for the firm's assets are favorable, it should most likely follow a:
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A
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B
Quick divestment strategy.
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA quick divestment strategy assumes that the highest net recovery is obtained by sale early in the decline phase. It is then that uncertainty about the industry's future is greatest and other markets for the assets are most favorable. Indeed, divestiture may be indicated during the maturity phase prior to decline. But the firm risks being wrong about the onset of the decline phase. Quick divestment should be chosen when the industry structure is unfavorable, and the firm lacks strengths in the remaining pockets of demand.
Question 18
Single choice
Which of the following data privacy concerns can be attributed specifically to blockchain technologies?
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A
Cybercriminals mainly resort to blockchain technologies to phish for private data
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B
Since blockchain transactions can be easily tampered with, the risk of private data leakage is high
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C
Data privacy regulations overregulate the usage of private data in blockchain transactions
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D
Immutability of blockchain technologies makes private data erasure a challenge
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA core feature of blockchain technology is immutability--once data is recorded, it cannot be altered or deleted. While this supports integrity and transparency, it also creates a conflict with data privacy regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which grants individuals the "right to be forgotten." The inability to erase personal data stored on blockchain creates a compliance challenge. Options A and B are incorrect: phishing is not inherent to blockchain, and transactions are not easily tampered with (immutability actually prevents that). Option C is misleading because regulations address data use but do not "overregulate" blockchain specifically. References: IIA Global Technology Audit Guide (GTAG): Understanding Blockchain and Related Risks.
Question 19
Single choice
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a zero-based budget?
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A
A zero-based budget provides estimates of costs that would be incurred under different levels of activity.
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B
A zero-based budget maintains focus on the budgeting process.
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C
A zero-based budget is prepared each year and requires each item of expenditure to be justified.
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D
A zero-based budget uses input from lower-level and middle-level managers to formulate budget plans.
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Question 20
Single choice
At one organization, the specific terms of a contract require both the promisor and promisee to sign the contract in the presence of an independent witness. What is the primary role of the witness to these signatures?
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A
A witness verifies the quantities of the copies signed
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B
A witness verifies that the contract was signed with the free consent of the promisor and promisee
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C
A witness ensures the completeness of the contract between the promisor and promisee
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D
A witness validates that the signatures on the contract were signed by the promisor and promisee
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Question 21
Single choice
The process of scenario planning begins with which of the following steps?
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A
Determining the trends that will influence key factors in the organization's environment.
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B
Selecting the issue or decision that will impact how the organization conducts future business.
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C
Selecting leading indicators to alert the organization of future developments.
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D
Identifying how customers, suppliers, competitors, employees, and other stakeholders will react.
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Question 22
Single choice
Which of the following results is most likely to occur when public media are used to resolve disputes between employees and management?
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A
The company's image may be improved.
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B
Public opinion may pressure the parties to resolve the dispute.
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C
Communication between employees and management is improved.
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D
The need for support from a union is increased.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationWhen public media are used as tools for resolving employee-management disputes, communication is hindered because the issues are addressed to the public rather than discussed with the other party. Moreover, compromise becomes difficult because the stated conclusions are solidified by public opinion. However, the need for union support is reduced because public pressure may help to resolve the negotiations.
Question 23
Single choice
Data analysis indicates that a hospital pharmacy disbursed higher levels of controlled drugs than similar pharmacies in the area. The hospital's internal auditor discusses the risk with the head of the hospital pharmacy, who believes that the risk is appropriately mitigated by controls and feels comfortable with the number of prescriptions written. What should the auditor do next?
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A
Document that the head of the pharmacy has accepted the risk and believes it is sufficiently mitigated, and conclude the risk assessment
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B
Request that an independent third party re-perform the data analysis to verify the accuracy of the initial findings
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C
nvestigate the risk by requesting pharmacy policies, procedures, and detailed reports
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D
Add an audit of the hospital pharmacy to the annual audit plan to fully investigate the risk later in the year
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Question 24
Single choice
All of the following are skills that managers must focus on when attempting to manage time properly except:
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A
The ability to focus on results.
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B
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C
Concentrating time and energy on tasks with the highest payoffs.
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D
The ability to plan, delegate, organize, direct, and control.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTo function effectively, managers must learn to manage time properly. The key principle is to focus on results rather than on staying busy. Time management is actually self-management. The skills needed to manage others are the same skills needed to manage oneself. Time management requires self-discipline and control until it becomes an everyday habit.
Question 25
Single choice
Which of the following is based on the concept that there is not one best leadership style and that successful leadership depends on a match between the leader, the situation, and the subordinate?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 26
Single choice
What is the first step an internal audit function should take to define its organizational structure, deliverables, communication protocols, and resourcing model?
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A
Recommend improvements to the organization's governance policies, processes, and structures
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B
Define a hiring plan to address competency gaps needed to execute the audit plan
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C
Construct periodic self-assessments, ongoing monitoring, and external assessments to measure quality
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D
Assess the needs and expectations of the board, senior management, and external auditors
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe first step in defining the internal audit function's structure and processes is to understand the needs and expectations of the board, senior management, and external stakeholders. This ensures alignment with organizational priorities and risk appetite. Option A (recommend improvements) is a later activity. Option B (hiring plan) comes after the structure and resourcing needs are identified. Option C (quality assessments) occurs after processes are established. References: IIA Standards - Standard 1000: Purpose, Authority, and Responsibility.
Question 27
Single choice
Which one of the following will not help overcome communication problems between the Accounting Department and other departments?
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A
Interdepartmental task forces.
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B
Cross traininand job rotation.
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C
Organization-wide social events.
-
D
A performance appraisal prepared by your immediate supervisor.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationHorizontal communication between departments is often subject to more problems than either upward or downward communication within a single department. Examples of these problems include the use of technical terms understood by only one side in the communication process, faulty channel selection, and interpersonal problems. To overcome these difficulties, the sender must encode the message in the context of the receiver's perceptions; that is, the sender mustunderstand the receiver. The sender must establish an interpersonal climate that encourages the elimination of interpersonal barriers to communication. A performance appraisal prepared by the accountant's supervisor will not help the accountant understand the perceptions of people in other departments.
Question 28
Single choice
Which would provide the board with the highest level of assurance regarding whether an internal audit function can achieve its objectives?
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A
Percentage of completed audit engagements
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B
Key stakeholder satisfaction surveys
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C
External quality assurance feedback
-
D
Audit personnel commitment and turnover rates
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe IIA requires internal audit functions to have an external quality assessment at least once every five years. External quality assurance feedback provides the most independent, objective, and reliable assurance to the board regarding whether the internal audit function conforms with standards and is positioned to achieve its objectives. Option A measures productivity but not quality. Option B provides useful insights but is subjective. Option D indicates staffing health but does not directly assess ability to meet objectives. References: IIA Standards - Standard 1312: External Assessments.
Question 29
Single choice
Which of the following strategies would most likely prevent an organization from adjusting to evolving industry market conditions?
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A
Specializing in proven manufacturing techniques that have made the organization profitable in the past.
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B
Substituting its own production technology with advanced techniques used by its competitors.
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C
Forgoing profits over a period of time to gain market share from its competitors.
-
D
Using the same branding to sell its products through new sales channels to target new markets.
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Question 30
Single choice
The factor that would not contribute to retention of experienced employees would be:
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A
Initiation of job enrichment programs.
-
B
Adherence to government regulations regarding sex discrimination in paying and promoting workers.
-
C
Paying new employees more than older ones.
-
D
Adoption of flextime rules.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationWhen old employees discover that newcomers are being hired at higher salaries, the group hired first will be unhappy, feeling that their greater experience should warrant greater reward. In the short run, the newcomers will be satisfied. But it is possible that next year's newcomers will be hired at still higher salaries, contributing to the overall dissatisfaction. Thus, such a policy will provide incentives for experienced workers to leave the company.
Question 31
Single choice
Which of the following are steps in a customer value analysis (CVA)? I. Determining what customers value. II. Having customers rank the relative significance of the elements of customer value. III. Evaluating how well the firm and its competitors perform relative to the elements of customer value. IV. Focusing on performance with respect to each element of customer value.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCustomer value analysis (CVA) identifies what customers value and how well a company delivers those benefits relative to competitors. The process includes determining the attributes customers value, assessing the relative importance of those attributes, evaluating the firm’s and competitors’ performance on them, and focusing improvement efforts on performance for each value element. Therefore, all four activities are valid steps in customer value analysis.
Question 32
Single choice
Which of the following statements regarding organizational structures is true?
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A
Decentralized organizations tend to have written rules, established procedures, and a high level of uniformity.
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B
Centralized organizations tend to be more efficient and make faster decisions.
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C
Centralized organizations tend to have less control at the top management level.
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D
Decentralized organizations' power is more dispersed and is based on the regional managers' knowledge.
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Question 33
Single choice
Which of the following scenarios would cause a chief audit executive (CAE) to immediately discontinue using any statements that would indicate conformance with the Global Internal Audit Standards in an audit report?
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A
The internal audit function used a risk-based approach to create the internal audit plan
-
B
The engagement supervisor considered requests from senior management regarding engagements to include in the internal audit plan
-
C
The CAE only accepted engagements that the internal audit function collectively had the knowledge to perform
-
D
The activity under review restricted the internal audit function's ability to access records, impacting the audit results
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe Global Internal Audit Standards require unrestricted access to records, personnel, and information. If access is restricted in such a way that audit results are compromised, the CAE cannot claim conformance with the Standards in any report until the issue is resolved. Options A, B, and C are all in alignment with the Standards and do not affect conformance. Only restriction of access (Option D) requires immediate discontinuation of conformance claims. References: IIA Standards - Standard 1110: Organizational Independence Standard 1321: Use of "Conforms with the Standards."
Question 34
Single choice
Which of the following is an advantage of a decentralized organizational structure, as opposed to a centralized structure?
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A
Greater cost-effectiveness,
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B
Increased economies of scale.
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C
-
D
Strong internal controls.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReferences: https://www.economicsdiscussion.net/management/advantages-and-disadvantages-of-decentralization/31848
Question 35
Single choice
A chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a strategic plan for the internal audit function. In the last two years, the organization has faced significant IT risks, but the internal audit function has not been able to audit those areas due to a lack of knowledge. How could the CAE address this in the strategic plan?
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A
Purchase a data analytics program for the internal audit function
-
B
Hold listening sessions to receive management's input on the strategic plan
-
C
Develop a succession plan for the internal audit function to avoid staffing deficiencies
-
D
Identify relevant training resources to strengthen staff skillsets
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe CAE must ensure the internal audit activity has the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to address significant risks facing the organization. In this scenario, IT risks have not been audited due to a skills gap. The best response is to identify and provide training resources to strengthen the team's IT audit capabilities. Option A (data analytics) is a tool, not a competency solution. Option B (listening sessions) helps planning but does not address the skill deficiency. Option C (succession planning) is future-focused but does not solve the current IT knowledge gap. References: IIA Standards - Standard 1210: Proficiency.
Question 36
Single choice
Which of the following functions of a quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP) must be performed by personnel independent of the internal audit function?
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A
-
B
Communication of QAIP results to the board
-
C
Disclosure of nonconformance
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA QAIP includes both internal and external assessments. While internal assessments can be performed by audit staff or within the activity, external assessments must be conducted by a qualified, independent party outside of the internal audit activity. Options B and C are the CAE's responsibilities. Option D (internal assessments) is not independent and is part of routine quality control. References: IIA Standards - Standard 1312: External Assessments.
Question 37
Single choice
Which industry factor does not contribute to competitive rivalry?
-
A
Price-cutting, large advertising budgets, and frequent introduction of new products.
-
B
A firm's growth must come from winning other firms' customers.
-
C
High costs of customers switching suppliers.
-
D
High fixed costs relative to variable costs.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIf it is expensive to switch suppliers, customers will be less motivated to respond to competitor advances.
Question 38
Single choice
Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
-
A
Each subordinate should only have one superior.
-
B
Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
-
C
Responsibility may be delegated.
-
D
The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTaylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility should always remain with the person who made the decision.
Question 39
Single choice
Which of the following documents would provide an internal auditor with information on the length of time to maintain documents after the completion of an engagement?
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A
-
B
Annual internal audit plan
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C
-
D
Quality assurance and improvement program
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe retention and maintenance of internal audit engagement records, including the period of time they must be kept, is governed by the internal audit activity's policies and procedures. These policies provide guidance on record retention consistent with organizational requirements, legal and regulatory obligations, and professional standards. The charter (Option A) defines purpose, authority, and responsibility but does not detail document retention. The annual plan (Option B) outlines engagements but not recordkeeping. The quality assurance and improvement program (Option D) addresses continuous improvement and compliance with standards, not retention guidelines. Therefore, the correct source for document retention requirements is internal audit policies (Option C). References: IIA Standards - Standard 2330: Documenting Information Implementation Guide 2330.
Question 40
Single choice
The board and senior management agree to outsource the internal audit function. Which of the following is true regarding the company's quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?
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A
The organization is responsible for maintaining an effective QAIP
-
B
The organization is responsible for the internal assessment of the QAIP
-
C
The service provider is responsible for the external assessment of the QAIP every three years
-
D
The QAIP should be postponed until the organization insources or cosources the internal audit function
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Correct answerA
ExplanationEven when outsourcing the internal audit function, the organization retains responsibility for ensuring the internal audit activity complies with the Standards. This includes maintaining a QAIP to assess effectiveness and quality. The provider executes the function, but the CAE and the organization's oversight bodies remain accountable for quality. Options B and C are incorrect since internal and external assessments may be performed by the provider, but ultimate responsibility rests with the organization. Option D (postponement) would violate the Standards. References: 1310: Requirements of the QAIP Standard 2070: External Service Provider and Organizational Responsibility.
Question 41
Single choice
Which of the following statements is true regarding multi-report summaries for members of senior management and the board?
-
A
Multi-report summaries should be used to describe the work performed by the internal audit function
-
B
In developing multi-report summaries, internal auditors should use multi-row and multi-column tables
-
C
Multi-report summaries are not useful to boards that see every engagement report
-
D
Multi-report summaries are readily developed if each finding is rated
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Correct answerD
ExplanationMulti-report summaries are designed to provide senior management and the board with aggregated results across multiple audit engagements. To make them effective, internal audit functions typically rate findings (e. g., high, medium, low) so results can be compared and summarized efficiently. Option A is incomplete because summaries are not just about describing audit work but about presenting meaningful insights. Option B (tables) refers to presentation style, not the key principle. Option C is incorrect because even if boards review individual reports, summaries provide strategic insights across engagements. Thus, the correct answer is Option D. References: IIA Practice Guide - Formulating and Expressing Internal Audit Opinions.
Question 42
Single choice
Two managers have been arguing about the distribution of money for capital investment projects affecting their respective production units. All of the projects are worthwhile and significantly exceed the organization's required rate of return. The approach that would create a win-win solution for the managers under these circumstances would be to:
-
A
Smooth the differences of the two managers by emphasizing their common interests.
-
B
Alter the attitudes and behaviors of the managers so that agreement can be reached.
-
C
Force the managers to compromise by asking each of them to give up something.
-
D
Expand the resources available so that both manager's projects can be funded.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationExpanding the pool of scarce resources, in this case, the money available for capital projects, permits both managers to achieve his/her objectives without having to give up anything of value. Thus, each side wins.
Question 43
Single choice
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to record each partner's initial investment in a partnership?
-
A
At the value agreed upon by the partners.
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReferences: https://www.slideshare.net/ArthikDavianti/accounting-for-partnership-46681465
Question 44
Single choice
Which of the following assists in ensuring mat information exchanged over IT systems is encrypted?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 45
Single choice
Which of the following does not describe perception?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationPerception is the process through which someone gives meaning to the surrounding environment. Perception consists of three subprocesses:selectivity, organization, and interpretation. Objectives focus upon the purpose of communication rather than the receipt and interpretation perception).
Question 46
Single choice
Which of the following data analytics techniques is used to identify patterns among groups of data elements?
-
A
Stratification of numeric values.
-
B
Joining different data sources.
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C
-
D
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Question 47
Single choice
A construction manager is using a distributive-bargaining approach in negotiating the price of lumber with a supplier. The construction manager will:
-
A
Concede to the supplier's asking price in order to maintain a positive working relationship.
-
B
Hire a mediator to negotiate the deal on behalf of the manager.
-
C
Attempt to get agreement on a price within the settlement range (that is, within both the manager's and supplier's aspiration ranges).
-
D
State the resistance point (that is, the highest price acceptable) and ask the supplier to concede.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationWhen using a distributive-bargaining approach, the negotiator operates with a maximum desired result (target point) and a minimum acceptable result (resistance point) in mind. If the ranges of feasible outcomes (aspiration ranges) overlap, an agreement is possible.
Question 48
Single choice
Communication plays an important role in the successful operation of all organizations. Which of the following statements concerning organizational communications is false?
-
A
Communication involves at least two people:a sender and a receiver.
-
B
Communication is what the sender says, not what the receiver understands.
-
C
Every act of communication influences the organization in some way.
-
D
Management spends the majority of its time communicating with other members of the organization.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe communication process has five elements:the sender, the symbols in which the message is encoded, the medium through which the message flows, the receiver, and feedback. Because the effectiveness of communication can be known only by its impact on the receiver and the perceived change in the receiver's behavior, the received message must govern the definition. The sent message may be garbled in encoding, in transmission, or in the receiver's decoding.
Question 49
Single choice
What security feature would identify a legitimate employee using her own smart device to gain access to an application run by the organization?
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A
Using a jailbroken or rooted smart device feature.
-
B
Using only smart devices previously approved by the organization.
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C
Obtaining written assurance from the employee that security policies and procedures are followed.
-
D
Introducing a security question known only by the employee.
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Question 50
Single choice
A motivational technique generally used to overcome monotony and job-related boredom is:
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationComprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation: Job rotation involves periodically moving employees between different tasks, roles, or departments to increase engagement, reduce boredom, and enhance skill development. Option A (Job specification) - Defines job responsibilities but does not address boredom. Option B (Job objectives) - Focuses on performance goals rather than task variety. Option D (Job description) - Simply documents job roles without changing daily tasks. Thus, job rotation (Option C) is the most effective strategy for overcoming monotony and job-related boredom. References: IIA Human Resource Management - Employee Motivation Techniques
Question 51
Single choice
An organization is experiencing a high turnover. Which of the following can human resources deploy to effectively detect the root cause of turnover?
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A
Require regular performance appraisals
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B
-
C
Encourage periodic rotation of employee duties.
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D
Ensure mandatory vacations
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Question 52
Single choice
Which of the following is not an effective principle for guiding a manager's use of leadership techniques?
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A
Serve as a model of the behavior expected from others.
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B
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C
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D
Follow written procedures at all times.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationLeadership is the act or process of influencing, inspiring, and guiding people so they will strive willingly toward the achievement of group objectives through common effort. Much management research has been devoted to determining the traits of leaders, leadership styles, and the situations in which particular styles are effective. However, a blind focus on internal process is a habit of administration, not of leadership. A manager of this type is called a bureaucratic leader. In the absence of a specific policy or procedure, (s)he seeks guidance from the next levelof management. In some situations, for example, when employees handle cash or highly delicate or dangerous equipment or chemicals, bureaucratic leadership may be needed.
Question 53
Single choice
Which of the following statements distinguishes a router from a typical switch?
-
A
A router operates at layer two, while a switch operates at layer three of the open systems interconnection model.
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B
A router transmits data through frames, while a switch sends data through packets.
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C
A router connects networks, while a switch connects devices within a network.
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D
A router uses a media access control address during the transmission of data, while a switch uses an internet protocol address.
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Question 54
Single choice
An internal auditor is trying to assess control risk and the effectiveness of an organization's internal controls. Which of the following audit procedures would not provide assurance to the auditor on this matter?
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A
Interviewing the organization's employees.
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B
Observing the organization's operations.
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C
Reading the board's minutes.
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D
Inspecting manuals and documents.
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Question 55
Single choice
Under which of the following circumstances can the internal audit function rely most confidently on the work performed by external auditors?
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A
The chief audit executive (CAE) has access to the external auditors' audit programs and workpapers
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B
The CAE requires that external auditors use the same techniques, methods, and terminology as the internal auditors
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C
The board of directors reviews the materiality and risk assessment performed by external auditors to direct the CAE
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D
The board of directors requires that all final communications by external auditors be reviewed by the CAE
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReliance on external auditors' work is possible if the CAE has sufficient access to review their programs and workpapers to evaluate the scope, quality, and results. This ensures internal audit can confirm the appropriateness of relying on their work. Option B is not required--external and internal audit can use different methodologies. Options C and D represent governance involvement but do not substitute for CAE's independent evaluation of audit work. References: IIA Standards - Standard 2050: Coordination and Reliance.
Question 56
Single choice
Which of the following is a key factor in the development of a production budget for a manufacturing organization?
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A
Direct materials units required.
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B
Estimated ending unit inventory.
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C
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D
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Question 57
Single choice
Which one of the following statements regarding communication along the grapevine in an organization is false?
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A
By maintaining open channels of communication, managers can minimize the damage thegrapevine can do in an organization.
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B
Attempts to totally eliminate the grapevine are unlikely to succeed.
-
C
The grapevine communication network can exist in several patterns.
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D
The grapevine is rumor-mongering, and managers should not use the grapevine.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA grapevine is the name of the informal communication channel that exists in all organizations. The grapevine exists wherever there are people. Although the grapevine is usually accurate, it can carry gossip and rumor. The effective manager stays tuned into the grapevine and uses it constructively.
Question 58
Single choice
As a manager, you should be striving for a high level of job satisfaction for your staff for all the following reasons except:
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A
A happy, satisfied worker is always a more productive worker.
-
B
High job satisfaction usually results in lower turnover.
-
C
Dissatisfied employees are often less healthy.
-
D
Many people feel job satisfaction is as important as remuneration.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationStudies have shown that worker satisfaction does not necessarily lead to improved productivity. In fact, studies indicate that it is more likely that a productive worker is a happy worker.
Question 59
Single choice
Patents are granted to encourage firms to invest in the research and development of new products. Patents are an example of
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEntry barriers exist in all market structures other than perfect competition. The fewer the firms in an industry, the greater the barriers tend to be. Entry barriers include the existence of substantial economies of scale (low unit costs can be achieved only by large producers). They also include barriers created by existing firms. For example, large advertising expenditures may be necessary to compete. Control of raw materials or technology is another barrier. Consequently, patents held by existing firms may serve as an entry barrier because they prevent potential competitors from using certain technology. Patents are rights granted by the federal government to inventors to allow them the exclusive use of their inventions for a specific.
Question 60
Single choice
Which of the following attributes of data is most likely to be compromised in an organization with a weak data governance culture?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 61
Single choice
Which of the following is true regarding bonds?
-
A
Bondholders do not have voting rights but obtain corporate control via interest pay-outs.
-
B
Debenture bonds are rarely used by organizations with good credit ratings.
-
C
Using bonds involves paying interest on a periodic basis and repaying the principal at the due date.
-
D
Debenture bonds have specific assets pledged by the organization as collateral for the bonds.
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Question 62
Single choice
Which of the following statements about market signaling is correct? 1. The organization releases information about a new product generation. 2. The organization limits a challenger's access to the best source of raw materials or labor. 3. The organization announces that it is fighting a new process technology. 4. The organization makes exclusive arrangements with the channels.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 63
Single choice
Job design involves not only the intentional planning of the characteristics of a job but also of the work environment. The purpose is to increase workers' intrinsic job motivation so as to improve performance. It is an approach that explicitly considers workers' ego and social needs. The aspect of job design that should have the greatest motivational effect is:
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationJob enrichment is an attempt to apply the findings of Herzberg two-factor theory of behavior), Maslow hierarchy of human needs), Likert participation), and McGregor Theories X and Y) by structuring the job so that each worker participates in the planning and controlling so as to maximize the satisfaction of both social and ego needs and avoid the disadvantages of routine, highly specialized work. Job enrichment includes allowing and encouraging more worker discretion in deciding work methods, work sequence, and work pace. It encourages interactions between workers, gives workers a feeling of personal responsibility for their tasks, makes sure workers understand how their tasks contribute to the finished product, provides feedback on job performance, and involves workers in changes in the physical aspects of the work environment.
Question 64
Single choice
Which of the following is likely to have an expiration date and may contain stored clear text passwords?
-
A
-
B
Universal resource locator (URL)
-
C
Hypertext transport protocol (HTTP)
-
D
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Question 65
Single choice
An internal audit team performed an assurance engagement of the organization's IT security. The audit team found significant flaws in the design and implementation of the internal control framework. IT department managers often disagreed with the audit team on the significance of the findings, claiming that the controls in place partly mitigated the risks. Which of the following should be included when communicating the engagement results to senior management?
-
A
All the correspondence exchanged between the audit team and IT department demonstrating the disagreement
-
B
The audit team's findings and the IT department's opinion
-
C
Only the audit team's findings and the reasons they require immediate action from senior management
-
D
Only the findings that were agreed upon between the audit team and the IT department
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAccording to IIA Standards, engagement communications must be complete, objective, and balanced. When disagreements arise, the auditor should present both the audit team's findings and management's perspective so senior management and the board can make informed decisions. Option A is excessive; raw correspondence is not necessary. Option C omits management's opinion, reducing objectivity. Option D limits reporting to agreed items only, which would conceal significant unresolved issues. References: IIA Standards - Standard 2410: Criteria for Communicating.
Question 66
Single choice
A parent wishes to sell a subsidiary for US $1.6 billion. A buyer wishes to acquire the subsidiary for US $1.1 billion, with the best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) of US $1.4 billion. What is an acceptable BATNA for the seller in order for negotiation to be feasible?
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationUS $1.3 billion is an acceptable BATNA because the BATNA of the buyer is US $1.4 billion. Any amount over US $1.4 billion would cause negotiation to not be feasible.
Question 67
Single choice
Technological uncertainty, subsidy, and spin-offs are usually characteristics of:
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A
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B
-
C
-
D
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Question 68
Single choice
Which of the following statements about group decision making is most likely false?
-
A
There is a lack of responsibility for group decisions.
-
B
Group decision making is almost always less efficient than individual decision making.
-
C
The desire by individual members to be accepted by the group often restrains open disagreement.
-
D
Group decision making tends to be less creative than individual decision making.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationGroups tend to be more creative than individuals because diversity of member views generally results in the consideration of more alternatives for solving a problem but the social pressure to conform also may inhibit creativity.
Question 69
Single choice
When preparing the annual internal audit plan, which of the following should the chief audit executive (CAE) consider to optimize efficiency and effectiveness?
-
A
The CAE should review the objectives and scope of the external audit plan and consider including audits with the same objectives and scope to ensure thorough coverage of the area
-
B
The CAE should review the audit plan prepared by the compliance department and coordinate any audits in the same areas to reduce duplication of objectives and minimize disruption to the area under review
-
C
The CAE should avoid reviewing plans by internal or external assurance providers to increase effectiveness and reduce bias in internal audit selection
-
D
The CAE should review operational quality assurance audit plans, place reliance on the areas covered, and exclude those areas from final consideration in the annual internal audit plan
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTo optimize efficiency, the CAE should coordinate with other assurance providers such as compliance, quality assurance, and external auditors. This reduces duplication, minimizes disruption, and ensures resources are used effectively. Option A may lead to unnecessary duplication rather than coordination. Option C contradicts IIA guidance, which emphasizes coordination (Standard 2050). Option D excludes areas entirely, which is inappropriate because internal audit must still assess whether reliance is valid. References: IIA Standards - Standard 2050: Coordination and Reliance.
Question 70
Single choice
The basic purposes of an organization's internal communications network include all of the following except:
-
A
Obtaining a common focus among employees.
-
B
Informing potential investors about company operations and financial results.
-
C
Aiding high-quality decision making.
-
D
Integrating the efforts of specialists.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationBecause all managerial functions require communication, it is the secret to the success of any manager. A manager's ability to understand other people, and their ability to understand the manager, are crucial to accomplishing organizational objectives. Communication is the link that ties an organization together and transforms a diverse group of people into a cohesive whole. An organization's internal communications network is designed to facilitate decision making among managers, to promote goal congruence among employees, integrate the efforts of all employees, and build high morale and mutual trust. Informing potential investors about company operations is a purpose of the external, not internal, communications network.
Question 71
Single choice
Research on the common characteristics of leaders of global firms found that:
-
A
Ambition and relentless drive were more significant than honesty and trustworthiness.
-
B
The leaders tended to have multidisciplinary problem solving ability.
-
C
Being multilingual was unimportant.
-
D
Having traveled extensively before entering the working world was relatively uncommon.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA common characteristic of successful leaders of global firms is that they have effective problem-solving skills that draw from a multidisciplinary approach. The best candidates have varied backgrounds and can draw on a multitude of life experiences. They also tend to be flexible and adaptable, have good interpersonal skills, and communicate successfully.
Question 72
Single choice
Which of the following is an example of a physical control?
-
A
Providing fire detection and suppression equipment.
-
B
Establishing a physical security policy and promoting it throughout the organization.
-
C
Performing business continuity and disaster recovery planning.
-
D
Keeping an offsite backup of the organization's critical data.
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Question 73
Single choice
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of public key encryption to secure data while it is being transmitted across a network?
-
A
Both the key used to encrypt the data and the key used to decrypt the data are made public.
-
B
The key used to encrypt the data is kept private but the key used to decrypt the data is made public.
-
C
The key used to encrypt the data is made public but the key used to decrypt the data is kept private.
-
D
Both the key used to encrypt the data and the key used to decrypt the data are made private.
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Question 74
Single choice
In order to provide useful information for an organization's risk management decisions, which of the following factors is least important to assess?
-
A
The underlying causes of the risk.
-
B
The impact of the risk on the organization's objectives.
-
C
The risk levels of current and future events.
-
D
The potential for eliminating risk factors.
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Question 75
Single choice
Rivalry among existing firms in an industry is more likely to be strong when:
-
A
The industry is in the rapid growth stage.
-
B
Investment intensity is low.
-
C
A few firms are dominant.
-
D
Capacity must be expanded in large increments.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe intensity of rivalry and the threat of entry may vary with the extent of capacity expansion dictated by the need to achieve economics of scale. If it must be made in large increments to achieve economics of scale, competition will be more intense. The need for large-scale expansion to achieve production efficiency may result in an excess of industry capacity over demand. However, if capacity may be expanded in small increments, industry capacity is less likely to be excessive, the supply-demand balance is less likely to be upset, and price cutting is less likely to be necessary.
Question 76
Single choice
Which of the following issues is a concern that a database administrator may face when integrating an organization's applications that were once operated separately?
-
A
The integrity of the data created by the applications may be compromised by the integration.
-
B
The number of users with access to the applications may decrease as a result of the integration.
-
C
The cost of maintaining the integration of the applications may increase at the start of the process.
-
D
The implementation of more security protocols on the applications may slow down user productivity.
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Question 77
Single choice
Management decides to accept the risk on a significant audit observation related to the organization's exposure to fraud risk. The chief audit executive considers the finding to have a high residual risk. Which of the following steps should be performed last?
-
A
Gather risk appetite data
-
B
Inform the internal legal counsel
-
C
-
D
Consult with the organization's regulators
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe CAE must first gather data on risk appetite and discuss the matter with senior management. If unresolved, the CAE then escalates to the board (Option C). Only if the board accepts the risk and the CAE believes the exposure remains unacceptable should the final step involve informing regulators (Option D) when required by law or regulation. Thus, the correct answer for the last step is consulting with regulators (Option D). References: IIA Standards -Standard 2600: Communicating the Acceptance of Risks.
Question 78
Single choice
Which of the following is a primary driver behind the creation and prioritization of new strategic initiatives established by an organization?
-
A
-
B
-
C
Threats and opportunities.
-
D
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Question 79
Single choice
After auditing the treasury function, the internal audit team issued a final report, which included an action plan agreed with management. When the audit team returned three months later to follow up on the action plan, management indicated that the plan had not been implemented because the old treasury system was being replaced with a new system. Which of the following is the most appropriate audit response?
-
A
The internal audit team should propose a new, relevant action plan that takes into account the new treasury system
-
B
The internal audit team should disregard the original action plan and follow up next year, after management determines whether the new system poses any new risks
-
C
The internal audit team should report this issue to the chief audit executive, who should communicate management's noncompliance directly to the board
-
D
The internal audit team should report this issue to the chief audit executive, who should discuss the issue with senior management
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Correct answerD
ExplanationWhen management has not implemented agreed action plans, the internal audit team must escalate the matter to the CAE. The CAE is responsible for discussing such cases with senior management to understand the reasons and determine next steps. Option A is inappropriate because it is management's responsibility--not internal audit's--to propose action plans. Option B disregards the initial high-risk issue. Option C (escalation to the board) is premature unless senior management fails to act. Thus, the correct response is Option D: report to the CAE, who should discuss with senior management. References: IIA Standards - Standard 2500: Monitoring Progress Standard 2600: Communicating the Acceptance of Risks.
Question 80
Single choice
What are the objectives of governance as defined by the Standards?
-
A
Inform, direct, manage, and monitor.
-
B
Identify, assess, manage, and control.
-
C
Organize, assign, authorize, and implement.
-
D
Add value, improve, assure, and conform.
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Question 81
Single choice
Which of the following is used during all three stages of project management?
-
A
Earned Value Management (EVM).
-
B
Organizational procedures.
-
C
-
D
Project Management Information System (PMIS).
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Correct answerD
ExplanationComprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation: A Project Management Information System (PMIS) is a centralized tool used throughout a project's planning, execution, and monitoring phases. It helps track schedules, costs, and risks. Option A (EVM) - Used primarily in monitoring and control phases, not all three. Option B (Organizational procedures) - Provides guidance but is not actively used in all project phases. Option C (Performance measurement) - Important in monitoring, but not central to planning or execution. Since PMIS is used throughout the project lifecycle, Option D is correct. References: IIA Project Management - Tools& Techniques
Question 82
Single choice
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement?
-
A
-
B
-
C
Sense of belonging in the organization.
-
D
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Question 83
Single choice
Which of the following is not a technological factor that may lead to overbuilding?
-
A
Long lead times for adding capacity.
-
B
Changes in production technology.
-
C
The presence of economies of scale.
-
D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe following are technological factors that may lead to overbuilding: (1) capacity may need to be added in large increments; (2) the presence of economies of scale or a steep learning curve encourages preemption; (3) long lead times for adding capacity increase the risk of competitive inferiority if a firm does not act quickly to raise capacity; (4) when the minimum efficient scale increases, large plants are becoming more efficient even though demand is not growing:and (5) changes in production technology result in new construction while old plants remain in operation. High exit barriers are a structural factor that may lead to overbuilding. The effect of high exit barriers is to extend the period of overcapacity.
Question 84
Single choice
Forward integration most likely results in:
-
A
-
B
Reduced access to distribution channels.
-
C
Obtaining less information about demand.
-
D
Higher price realization.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationForward integration may permit higher price realization, for example, by moving into businesses in which the price elasticity of demand is relatively high and lower prices must be set. When demand is elastic, raising prices decreases revenue. Thus, the firm may benefit by acquiring customers with highelasticitywhile selling to customers with lowelasticity.
Question 85
Single choice
in which of the following technical infrastructure audits should attention be turned to physical security and environmental controls?
-
A
-
B
-
C
Network configuration review
-
D
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Question 86
Single choice
While conducting audit procedures at the organization's data center, an internal auditor noticed the following: - Backup media was located on data center shelves. - Backup media was organized by date. - Backup schedule was one week in duration. - The system administrator was able to present restore logs. Which of the following is reasonable for the internal auditor to conclude?
-
A
Backup media is not properly stored, as the storage facility should be off-site.
-
B
Backup procedures are adequate and appropriate according to best practices.
-
C
Backup media is not properly indexed, as backup media should be indexed by system, not date.
-
D
Backup schedule is not sufficient, as full backup should be conducted daily.
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Question 87
Single choice
Which of the following business practices promotes a culture of high performance?
-
A
Reiterating the importance of compliance with established policies and procedures.
-
B
Celebrating employees' individual excellence.
-
C
Periodically rotating operational managers.
-
D
Avoiding status differences among employees.
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Question 88
Single choice
Given the information below, which organization is in the weakest position to pay short-term debts? Organization A: Current assets constitute $1,200,000; Current liabilities are $400,000 Organization B: Current assets constitute $1,000,000; Current liabilities are $1,000,000 Organization C: Current assets constitute $900,000; Current liabilities are $300,000 Organization D: Current assets constitute $1,000,000; Current liabilities are $250,000
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A
-
B
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C
-
D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationReferences: IIA Business Knowledge for Internal Auditing, Financial Ratios section.
Question 89
Single choice
Which of the following statements regarding virtual teams is false?
-
A
Virtual teams may be able to work faster than a traditional team.
-
B
In-person interaction and team-building exercises are unnecessary.
-
C
Roles and objectives must be clearly communicated.
-
D
Team leaders should meet members in person before the members are chosen for participation in the group.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIn-person and team-building exercises are often necessary to create the cohesion and trust for a group to operate effectively. If there are no team-building exercises, the team may fracture and become ineffective at achieving its objective.
Question 90
Single choice
Which of the following is true regarding an organization's relationship with external stakeholders?
-
A
Specific guidance must be followed when interacting with nongovernmental organizations.
-
B
Disclosure laws tend to be consistent from one jurisdiction to another.
-
C
There are several internationally recognized standards for dealing with financial donors.
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D
Legal representation should be consulted before releasing internal audit information to other assurance providers.
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Question 91
Single choice
An organization decided to install a motion detection system in its warehouse to protect against after-hours theft. According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes this risk managementstrategy?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 92
Single choice
Which of the following is a primary objective of the theory of constraints?
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A
Full or near capacity in processes.
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B
Smooth workflow among processes.
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C
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D
Lowered inventory levels.
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Question 93
Single choice
According to IIA guidance on IT, which of the following best describes a situation where data backup plans exist to ensure that critical data can be restored at some point in the future, but recovery and restore processes have not been defined?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Absence of recovery plan.
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Question 94
Single choice
Which of the following is an example of a badly encoded message?
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A
Inattention or disinterest in the message.
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B
Inconsistency between verbal and nonverbal messages.
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C
Gesturing to someone who cannot see the gesture.
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D
Sender's dislike of receiver.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIf body language or tone of voice send a message different from the spoken words, the receiver will not be clear about the meaning of the message.
Question 95
Single choice
Which of the following purchasing scenarios would gain the greatest benefit from implementing electronic data interchange?
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A
A time-sensitive just-in-time purchase environment.
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B
A large volume of custom purchases.
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C
A variable volume sensitive to material cost.
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D
A currently inefficient purchasing process.
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Question 96
Single choice
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, internal auditors who are assessing the adequacy of organizational risk management processes should not:
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A
Recognize that organizations use different techniques for managing risk.
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B
Seek assurance that the key objectives of the risk management processes are being met.
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C
Determine and accept the level of risk for the organization.
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D
Treat the evaluation of risk management processes differently from the risk analysis used to plan audit engagements.
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Question 97
Single choice
Which of the following describes the most appropriate set of tests for auditing a workstation's logical access controls?
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A
Review the list of people with access badges to the room containing the workstation and a log of those who accessed the room.
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B
Review the password length, frequency of change, and list of users for the workstation's login process.
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C
Review the list of people who attempted to access the workstation and failed, as well as error messages.
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D
Review the passwords of those who attempted unsuccessfully to access the workstation and the log of their activity.
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Question 98
Single choice
Which of the following statements is true regarding opportunity cost?
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A
It is relevant to management decision making when resources have alternative uses
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B
It is a valuable historical cost tool used for management decision making
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C
It is considered a key fixed cost in incremental analysis
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D
It is an important quantitative factor used to calculate the internal rate of return
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Question 99
Single choice
For employees, the primary value of implementing job enrichment is which of the following?
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A
Validation of the achievement of their goals and objectives.
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B
Increased knowledge through the performance of additional tasks.
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C
Support for personal growth and a meaningful work experience.
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D
An increased opportunity to manage better the work done by their subordinates.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://na.theiia.org/about-us/Public%20Documents/Esther%20R%20%20Sawyer%20Research%20Manuscript%207-26-11-Rachel%20Bond.pdf
Question 100
Single choice
Behavior modification is the management of environmental factors to encourage desirable behavior and to discourage undesirable behavior. Environmental factors include antecedents that:
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A
Reward each occurrence of a behavior.
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B
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C
Withdraw an unpleasant condition when a desired behavior occurs.
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D
Encourage a given behavior.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAntecedents are cues that encourage but do not cause a given behavior. Managing antecedents involves eliminating barriers to good performance and replacing them with helpful aids. Barriers include unattainable objectives, poor training, confusing rules, andconflicting directions from management. Aids include challenging but attainable objectives, clear instructions, realistic plans, constructive suggestions, and acceptable work rules.
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