NCLEX NCLEX-RN Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

NCLEX NCLEX-RN Online Questions & Answers

• Question 231:

  The nurse should facilitate bonding during the postpartum period. What should the nurse expect to observe in the taking-hold phase?

  A. Mother is concerned about her recovery.
  B. Mother calls infant by name.
  C. Mother lightly touches infant.
  D. Mother is concerned about her weight gain.
  B. Mother calls infant by name.

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  (A) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase when the mother's needs are more important. (B) This observation can be made during the taking-hold phase when the mother is actively involved with herself and the infant. (C, D) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase.

• Question 232:

  A client is resting comfortably after delivering her first child. When assessing her pulse rate, the nurse would recognize the following finding to be typical:

  A. Thready pulse
  B. Irregular pulse
  C. Tachycardia
  D. Bradycardia
  D. Bradycardia

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  (A) A thready pulse is indicative of hypotension and excessive blood loss and is often rapid. (B) Pulse irregularities or dysrhythmias do not occur in the normal postpartal woman. (C) Tachycardia occurs less frequently than bradycardia and is related to increased blood loss or prolonged difficult labor and/or birth. (D) Puerperal bradycardia with rates of 50?0 bpm commonly occurs during the first 6?0 days of the postpartal period. It may be related to decreased cardiac strain, decreased blood volume, contraction of the uterus, and increased stroke volume.

• Question 233:

  In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 1? weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe?

  A. Diazepam (Valium)
  B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
  C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
  D. Alprazolam (Xanax)
  B. Haloperidol (Haldol)

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  (A) Diazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms. (B) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication and may be used until the lithium takes effect. (C) Sertraline is an antidepressant and is used primarily to reduce symptoms of depression. (D) Alprazolam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms.

• Question 234:

  A woman diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is disturbed with diplopia. The nurse will teach her to:

  A. Limit activities which require focusing (close vision)
  B. Take more frequent naps
  C. Use artificial tears
  D. Wear a patch over one eye
  D. Wear a patch over one eye

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  (A) Limiting activities requiring close vision will not alleviate the discomfort of double vision. (B) Frequent naps may be comforting, but they will not prevent double vision. (C) Artificial tears are necessary in the absence of a corneal reflex, but they have no effect on diplopia. (D) An eye patch over either eye will eliminate the effects of double vision during the time the eye patch is worn. An eye patch is safe for a person with an intact corneal reflex.

• Question 235:

  A physician's order reads: 0.25 normal saline at 50 mL/hr until discontinued. The nurse is using a microdrip tubing set. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?

  A. 1 gtt/min
  B. 5 gtt/min
  C. 50 gtt/min
  D. 100 gtt/min
  C. 50 gtt/min

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  (A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C)50 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.

• Question 236:

  During the assessment, the nurse observes a client scratching his skin. He has been admitted to rule out Laennec's cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse knows the pruritus is directly related to:

  A. A loss of phagocytic activity
  B. Faulty processing of bilirubin
  C. Enhanced detoxification of drugs
  D. The formation of collateral circulation
  B. Faulty processing of bilirubin

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  (A) A loss in the phagocytic activity of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the susceptibility to infections. (B) The faulty processing of bilirubin produces bilesalts, which are irritating to the skin. (C) The detoxification of drugs is impaired with cirrhosis of the liver. (D) Collateral circulation develops due to portal hypertension. This is manifest through the development of esophageal varices, hemorrhoids, and caput medusae.

• Question 237:

  The nurse teaches a male client ways to reduce the risks associated with furosemide therapy. Which of the following indicates that he understands this teaching?

  A. "I'll be sure to rise slowly and sit for a few minutes after lying down."
  B. "I'll be sure to walk at least 2- blocks every day."
  C. "I'll be sure to restrict my fluid intake to four or five glasses a day."
  D. "I'll be sure not to take any more aspirin while I am on this drug."
  A. "I'll be sure to rise slowly and sit for a few minutes after lying down."

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  (A) This response will help to prevent the occurrence of postural hypotension, a common side effect of this drug and a common reason for falls. (B) Although walking is an excellent exercise, it is not specific to the reduction of risks associated with diuretic therapy. (C) Clients on diuretic therapy are generally taught to ensure that their fluid intake is at least 2000?000 mL daily, unless contraindicated. (D) Aspirin is a safe drug to take along with furosemide.

• Question 238:

  On assessment, the nurse learns that a chronic paranoid schizophrenic has been taking "the blue pill" (haloperidol) in the morning and evening, and "the white pill" (benztropine) right before bedtime. The nurse might suggest to the client that she try:

  A. Doubling the daily dose of benztropine
  B. Decreasing the haloperidol dosage for a few days
  C. Taking the benztropine in the morning
  D. Taking her medication with food or milk
  C. Taking the benztropine in the morning

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  (A) Suggesting that a client increase a medication dosage is an inappropriate (and illegal) nursing action. This action requires a physician's order. (B) To suggest that a client decrease a medication dosage is an inappropriate (and illegal) nursing action. This action requires a physician's order. (C) This response is an appropriate independent nursing action. Because motorrestlessness can also be a side effect of cogentin, the nurse may suggest that the client try taking the drug early in the day rather than at bedtime. (D) Certain medications can cause gastric irritation and may be taken with food or milk to prevent this side effect.

• Question 239:

  The nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. The nurse would describe this client's urine output pattern as:

  A. Anuria
  B. Oliguria
  C. Dysuria
  D. Polyuria
  D. Polyuria

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  Explanation:

  (A)Anuriais defined as absence of urine output, which is not indicative of the urinary pattern of diabetes insipidus. (B)Oliguriais defined as <500 mL of urine per day, which is not a urinary output pattern associated with diabetes insipidus. (C)

  Dysuriais defined as difficult urination. Clients with diabetes insipidus do not have dysuria as a symptom of their disease. (D) Polyuria is a primary symptom of diabetes insipidus. These clients have decreased or absent vasopressin secretion,

  which causes water loss in the urine and sodium increases.

• Question 240:

  Assessment of a client reveals a 30% loss of preillness weight, lanugo, and cessation of menses for 3 months. Her vital signs are BP 90/50, P 96 bpm, respirations 30, and temperature 97 F. She admits to the nurse that she has induced vomiting 3 times this morning, but she had to continue exercising to lose "just 5 more lb." Her symptoms are consistent with:

  A. Pregnancy
  B. Bulimia
  C. Gastritis
  D. Anorexia nervosa
  D. Anorexia nervosa

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  (A)

  Presenting behaviors collectively are inconsistent with depression. (B) A preillness weight loss of 30%, lanugo, and cessation of menses are inconsistent with bulimia. (C) Symptoms and vital signs do not indicate the presence of infection.

  (D)

  All symptoms and vital signs are consistent with anorexia nervosa.