CompTIA CompTIA Certifications N10-008 Questions & Answers

• Question 861:

  A small office has a wireless network with several access points that are used by mobile devices. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Reports confirm that this only happens when the devices are connected to the office wireless network. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

  A. The configuration of the encryption protocol

  B. Interference from other devices

  C. Insufficient bandwidth capacity

  D. Duplicate SSIDs

  Correct Answer: B

  Interference from other devices can cause wireless connection drops or slow performance. This can happen when devices use the same or overlapping frequency channels as the wireless network, such as cordless phones, microwaves, Bluetooth devices, etc. To avoid interference, it is recommended to use non-overlapping channels and avoid placing wireless access points near potential sources of interference. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.1: Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced network devices. Subobjective: Wireless controllers.

• Question 862:

  A network technician receives a report about a performance issue on a client PC that is connected to port 1/3 on a network switch. The technician observes the following configuration output from the switch:

  

  Which of the following is a cause of the issue on port 1/3?

  A. Speed

  B. Duplex

  C. Errors

  D. VLAN

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 863:

  A network manager is configuring switches in IDFs to ensure unauthorized client computers are not connecting to a secure wired network. Which of the following is the network manager MOST likely performing?

  A. Disabling unneeded switchports

  B. Changing the default VLAN

  C. Configuring DHCP snooping

  D. Writing ACLs to prevent access to the switch

  Correct Answer: A

  The network manager is most likely performing the task of implementing port security on the switches in the Intermediate Distribution Frames (IDFs). Port security is a feature commonly used in network switches to control access to the network by limiting the devices that can connect to individual switch ports.

  By configuring port security, the network manager can enforce restrictions on the MAC (Media Access Control) addresses allowed to connect to specific switch ports. This prevents unauthorized client computers or devices from gaining access to the secure wired network.

  Typically, the network manager would configure port security to allow only authorized MAC addresses to connect to each switch port. If an unauthorized device attempts to connect, the switch can take actions such as shutting down the port, generating an alert, or applying other security measures to protect the network.

• Question 864:

  A company's web server is hosted at a local ISP. This is an example of:

  A. colocation

  B. an on-premises data center.

  C. a branch office.

  D. a cloud provider.

  Correct Answer: A

  Colocation refers to the practice of housing privately-owned servers and networking equipment in a third-party data center facility. In this scenario, the company's web server is hosted at a local ISP, which means that the server is physically located at the ISP's data center facility and is not on-premises at the company's own facility. The company likely rents rack space, power, cooling, and network connectivity from the ISP to house their server.

  On-premises data center refers to a company-owned facility that houses its own servers and networking equipment. A branch office is a remote location of a company, typically with its own set of IT resources. A cloud provider refers to a third-party company that provides cloud computing services, which typically involve hosting applications and data in the provider's data center facilities.

• Question 865:

  A network technician is planning a network scope. The web server needs to be within 12.31 69.1 to 12.31.69.29. Which of the following would meet this requirement?

  A. Lease time

  B. Range reservation

  C. DNS

  D. Superscope

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 866:

  A security administrator is trying to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network. Which of the following would MOST likely prevent this and allow the network to continue to operate?

  A. Configuring DHCP snooping on the switch

  B. Preventing broadcast messages leaving the client network

  C. Blocking ports 67/68 on the client network

  D. Enabling port security on access ports

  Correct Answer: A

  To prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network and allow the network to continue to operate, the security administrator should consider configuring DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) snooping on the switch.

  DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from operating on a network. It works by allowing the switch to monitor and validate DHCP traffic on the network, ensuring that only legitimate DHCP messages are forwarded to clients. This can help to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients, as it ensures that only authorized DHCP servers are able to provide IP addresses to clients on the network.

• Question 867:

  Which of the following issues are present with RIPv2? (Select TWO).

  A. Route poisoning

  B. Time to converge

  C. Scalability

  D. Unicast

  E. Adjacent neighbors

  F. Maximum transmission unit

  Correct Answer: BC

  The disadvantages of RIP (Routing Information Protocol) include the following. ---Outdated, insecure, and slow. This is your parents' protocol. It was a thing before the Web was born. ---The more well-known problem of the 15 hop limitation in which data must travel ---Convergence time is terrible for information propagation in a network ---Metrics. It determines the number of hops from source to destination, and gives no regard to other factors when determining the best path for data to travel ---Overhead. A good example would be routing tables. These are broadcast at half-minute intervals to other routers regardless of whether the data has changed or not. It's essentially like those old cartoons where the town guard in the walled city cries out, '10 o' the clock and all is well!'.

  RIPv2 introduced more security and reduced broadcast traffic, which is relevant for some available answers here.

• Question 868:

  Which of the following is considered a physical security detection device?

  A. Cameras

  B. Biometric readers

  C. Access control vestibules

  D. Locking racks

  Correct Answer: A

  Cameras are used for surveillance and monitoring purposes, allowing security personnel to observe and detect potential threats or security breaches. They are often used in combination with other physical security measures such as access control systems, alarms, and security guards. Cameras can also provide valuable evidence in the event of a security incident.

• Question 869:

  A company is utilizing multifactor authentication for data center access. Which of the following is the MOST effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials?

  A. Biometrics security hardware

  B. Access card readers

  C. Access control vestibule

  D. Motion detection cameras

  Correct Answer: A

  Biometrics security hardware is the most effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials as biometric authentication uses unique biological characteristics like fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition to confirm a person's identity, making it difficult for an unauthorized user to gain access even if they have stolen credentials. Access card readers and access control vestibules provide an additional layer of security, but they can be compromised by stolen access credentials. Motion detection cameras can help detect physical intrusions, but they do not provide any authentication mechanism.

• Question 870:

  A technician was cleaning a storage closet and found a box of transceivers labeled 8Gbps. Which of the following protocols uses those transceivers?

  A. Coaxial over Ethernet

  B. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface

  C. Fibre Channel

  D. Gigabit interface converter

  Correct Answer: C

  The transceivers labeled 8Gbps are likely to be used with the Fibre Channel protocol. Fibre Channel is a high-speed networking technology that is primarily used to connect storage devices to servers in storage area networks (SANs). It is capable of transmitting data at speeds of up to 8 Gbps (gigabits per second), and uses specialized transceivers to transmit and receive data over fiber optic cables.

  Coaxial over Ethernet (CoE) is a networking technology that uses coaxial cables to transmit data, and is not related to the transceivers in question. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is a protocol that allows devices to communicate over a network using the SCSI protocol, and does not typically use specialized transceivers. Gigabit interface converter (GBIC) is a type of transceiver used to transmit and receive data over fiber optic cables, but it is not capable of transmitting data at 8 Gbps.