CompTIA CompTIA Certifications N10-008 Questions & Answers

• Question 711:

  An administrator wants to increase the availability of a server that is connected to the office network. Which of the following allows for multiple NICs to share a single IP address and offers maximum performance while providing fault tolerance in the event of a NIC failure?

  A. Multipathing

  B. Spanning Tree Protocol

  C. First Hop Redundancy Protocol

  D. Elasticity

  Correct Answer: A

  Multipathing. Multipathing allows multiple physical network connections to a server to share a single IP address, providing both increased performance and fault tolerance in the event of a NIC failure. This is commonly used for servers that require high availability and should be operational at all times. Spanning Tree Protocol (B) and First Hop Redundancy Protocol (C) are network protocols used to provide redundancy and failover capabilities for network switches and routers, but they do not apply to servers directly. Elasticity (D) refers to the ability of a system or application to automatically scale up or down to meet changing demands, and is not directly related to server availability or network connectivity.

  Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19455-01/806-6547/6jffv7oma/index.html

• Question 712:

  A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?

  A. Memorandum of understanding

  B. Business continuity plan

  C. Disaster recovery plan

  D. Service-level agreement

  Correct Answer: D

  A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.

• Question 713:

  An engineer needs to verity the external record tor SMTP traffic. The engineer logged in to the server and entered the nslookup command. Which of the following commands should the engineer send before entering the DNS name?

  A. set type=A

  B. is -d company-mail.com

  C. set domain=company.mail.com

  D. set querytype=Mx

  Correct Answer: D

  Using the "set querytype=MX" command in the nslookup utility will allow you to query and retrieve the MX records for a domain. These MX records determine the mail servers responsible for receiving email traffic for that domain. This is directly related to verifying the external records for SMTP traffic, as SMTP is the protocol used for sending and receiving emails.

• Question 714:

  Which of the following BEST describes a spirt-tunnel client-to-server VPN connection?

  A. The client sends an network traffic down the VPN tunnel

  B. The client has two different IP addresses that can be connected to a remote site from two different ISPs to ensure availability

  C. The client sends some network traffic down the VPN tunnel and other traffic to the local gateway.

  D. The client connects to multiple remote sites at the same time

  Correct Answer: C

  In a split-tunnel VPN, the client can access both the local network and the remote network simultaneously, with some network traffic sent through the VPN tunnel and other traffic sent to the local gateway. This approach allows for more efficient use of bandwidth and reduces the load on the VPN server. It also allows the client to continue accessing local resources while connected to the remote network.

• Question 715:

  A corporation is looking for a method to secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center in order to provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work there. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

  A. Site-to-site VPN

  B. VNC

  C. Remote desktop gateway

  D. Virtual LANs

  Correct Answer: A

  A site-to-site VPN is a method that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two internet gateways, such as routers or firewalls, that belong to different networks1. A site-to-site VPN can secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center by creating a virtual tunnel that protects the data from interception or tampering. A site-to-site VPN can also provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work there, as they do not need to install any software or configure any settings on their devices to access the data center resources. They can simply use their local network as if they were physically connected to the data center network. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer's desktop from another device over a network2. VNC can enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their office computers from their home computers or mobile devices. However, VNC does not secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the network layer. VNC also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install software and configure settings on both the host and the client devices. Remote desktop gateway is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer's desktop from another device over a network using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). Remote desktop gateway can also enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their office computers from their home computers or mobile devices. However, remote desktop gateway does not secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the network layer. Remote desktop gateway also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install software and configure settings on both the host and the client devices. Virtual LANs (VLANs) are methods that create logical subdivisions of a physical network based on criteria such as function, department, or security level. VLANs can improve network performance, security, and management by reducing broadcast domains, isolating traffic, and enforcing policies. However, VLANs do not secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as they only work at the data link layer and do not encrypt the network layer. VLANs also do not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to configure settings on their network devices to join or leave a VLAN.

• Question 716:

  A network administrator is adding a new switch to the network. Which of the following network hardening techniques would be BEST to use once the switch is in production?

  A. Disable unneeded ports

  B. Disable SSH service

  C. Disable MAC filtering

  D. Disable port security

  Correct Answer: A

  Disabling unused ports can stop a bad guy from plugging a malicious device into an unused port and getting unauthorized access to the network. It can also help train users-especially those in remote offices-to call IT before moving things around. After a few go-rounds of plugging a computer into an empty port and having it not work, most people will take the hint that they need to call IT first.

• Question 717:

  Which of the following connector types would be used to connect to the demarcation point and provide network access to a cable modem?

  A. F-type

  B. RJ45

  C. LC

  D. RJ11

  Correct Answer: A

  An F-type connector is a type of coaxial connector that is commonly used to connect a cable modem to the demarcation point, which is the point at which the cable provider's network ends and the customer's network begins. The F-type connector is a threaded connector that is typically used for television, cable modem, and satellite antenna connections.

• Question 718:

  A company needs a redundant link to provide a channel to the management network in an incident response scenario. Which of the following remote access methods provides the BEST solution?

  A. Out-of-band access

  B. Split-tunnel connections

  C. Virtual network computing

  D. Remote desktop gateways

  Correct Answer: A

  Out-of-band access is a remote access method that provides a separate, independent channel for accessing network devices and systems. Out-of-band access uses a dedicated network connection or a separate communication channel, such as a dial- up or cellular connection, to provide access to network devices and systems. This allows an administrator to access the management network even if the primary network connection is unavailable or impaired. Out-of- band access is a good solution for providing a redundant link to the management network in an incident response scenario because it can be used to access the network even if the primary connection is unavailable or impaired.

• Question 719:

  An IT technician successfully connects to the corporate wireless network at a hank. While performing some tests, the technician observes that the physical address of the DHCp server has changed even though the network connection has not been lost. Which of the following would BEST explain this change?

  A. Server upgrade

  B. Duplicate IP address

  C. Scope exhaustion

  D. Rogue server

  Correct Answer: D

  A rogue server is a DHCP server on a network that is not under the administrative control of the network staff1. It may provide incorrect IP addresses or other network configuration information to devices on the network, causing them to lose connectivity or be vulnerable to attacks2. The physical address of the DHCP server may change if a rogue server takes over the role of assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. This can be detected by monitoring DHCP traffic or using tools such as RogueChecker2.

• Question 720:

  A network technician needs to ensure the company's external mail server can pass reverse lookup checks.

  Which of the following records would the technician MOST likely configure? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)

  A. PTR

  B. AAAA

  C. SPF

  D. CNAME

  Correct Answer: A

  A PTR (Pointer) record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, which is necessary for reverse lookup checks. Reverse lookup checks are performed by external mail servers to verify the identity of the sender of the email. By configuring a PTR record, the network technician can ensure that the company's external mail server can pass these checks. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, and it is often used for email authentication."