While waking from the parking lot lo an access-controlled door an employee sees an authorized user open the door. Then the employee notices that another person catches the door before It closes and goes inside.
Which of the following attacks Is taking place?
A. Tailgating
B. Pipgybacking
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Phisning
Correct Answer: A
The difference between piggybacking and tailgaiting is that with piggybacking, the person is willfully and intentionally letting you in. In this particular case, the person caught the door before it closed, so it is tailgating.
Tailgating is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a secured door or gate without their knowledge or consent. Tailgating can allow an attacker to bypass access control mechanisms and gain entry to restricted areas or resources. Tailgating can also pose a safety risk for the authorized person and other occupants of the facility. Piggybacking is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a secured door or gate with their knowledge or consent. Piggybacking can also allow an attacker to bypass access control mechanisms and gain entry to restricted areas or resources. Piggybacking can also violate security policies and compromise the accountability of the authorized person. Shoulder surfing is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person observes or records an authorized person's confidential information, such as passwords, PINs, or credit card numbers. Shoulder surfing can allow an attacker to steal credentials and access sensitive data or systems. Shoulder surfing can also violate privacy and confidentiality rights of the authorized person. Phishing is a cyber security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, companies, or government agencies. Phishing can trick recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing personal or financial information. Phishing can allow an attacker to install malware, steal credentials, or perform identity theft. Phishing does not involve physical access to secured doors or gates.
Question 612:
A technician is contracted to install a redundant cluster of devices from the ISP In case of a hardware failure within the network. Which of the following would provide the BEST redundant solution in Layer 2 devices?
A. Multiple routers
B. Multiple switches
C. Multiple firewalls
D. Multiple budges
Correct Answer: B
A switch is a device that connects devices on a network by using packet switching to receive, process and forward data to the destination device. Switches are used in most modern networks, as they are more efficient than hubs and can handle more traffic.
A redundant cluster of switches is a group of switches that are connected together in such a way that if one switch fails, the other switches will continue to operate. This provides a high level of redundancy and ensures that the network will continue to function even if there is a hardware failure.
Question 613:
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for enforcing bandwidth limits when the performance of an application is not affected by the use of buffering but is heavily impacted by packet drops?
A. Traffic shaping
B. Traffic policing
C. Traffic marking
D. Traffic classification
Correct Answer: A
"Instead of making a minimum amount of bandwidth available for specific traffic types, you might want to limit available bandwidth. Both traffic policing and traffic shaping tools can accomplish this objective. Collectively, these tools are called
traffic conditioners.
Policing can be used in either the inbound or the outbound direction, and it typically discards packets that exceed the configured rate limit, which you can think of as a speed limit for specific traffic types. Because policing drops packets,
resulting in re-transmissions, it is recommended for higher-speed interfaces. Shaping buffers (and therefore delays) traffic exceeding a configured rate. Therefore, shaping is recommended for slower-speed interfaces."
Question 614:
At which of the following OSI model layers does routing occur?
A. Data link
B. Transport
C. Physical
D. Network
Correct Answer: D
The Network layer is responsible for logical addressing, routing, and path determination of data between source and destination hosts on different networks. The layer uses logical addresses (e.g., IP addresses) to route packets to their destination.
Question 615:
During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols. Which of the following ports should be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 23
C. 69
D. 443
E. 587
F. 8080
Correct Answer: BC
TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is not considered a secure protocol. It does not provide any encryption or authentication mechanisms, making it vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks and unauthorized access to transferred data. It is mainly used for transferring files over local networks and is not recommended for sensitive information or data transmission over the internet.
Question 616:
Users in a branch can access an ln-house database server, but II is taking too long to fetch records. The analyst does not know whether the Issue is being caused by network latency. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to retrieve the metrics that are needed to resolve this issue?
A. SNMP
B. Link state
C. Syslog
D. QoS
E. Traffic shaping
Correct Answer: A
Traffic shaping might be how the analyst would fix the issue but the question asks most likely use to RETRIEVE THE METRICS needed to resolve. That would be SNMP traps.
Question 617:
Which of the following documents would be used to define uptime commitments from a provider, along with details on measurement and enforcement?
A. NDA
B. SLA
C. MOU
D. AUP
Correct Answer: B
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that outlines the agreed-upon level of service that a provider will deliver to a customer. It includes details on uptime commitments, performance metrics, measurement and enforcement procedures, and remedies for breaches of the agreement.
Question 618:
A network administrator is decommissioning a server. Which of the following will the network administrator MOST likely consult?
A. Onboarding and off boarding policies
B. Business continuity plan
C. Password requirements
D. Change management documentation
Correct Answer: D
When decommissioning a server, it is important to follow proper change management procedures to ensure that the process is documented and executed correctly. The change management documentation will typically outline the steps that should be followed when decommissioning a server, including any required approvals, notifications, or testing procedures.
Question 619:
A network engineer needs to create a subnet that has the capacity for five VLANs. with the following number of clients lo be allowed on each:
Which of the following is the SMALLEST subnet capable of this setup that also has the capacity to double the number of clients in the future?
A. 10.0.0.0/21
B. 10.0.0.0/22
C. 10.0.0.0/23
D. 10.0.0.0/24
Correct Answer: B
Question 620:
A company rents out a large event space and includes wireless internet access for each tenant. Tenants reserve a two-hour window from the company each week, which includes a tenant-specific SSID. However, all users share the company's network hardware.
The network support team is receiving complaints from tenants that some users are unable to connect to the wireless network. Upon investigation, the support team discovers a pattern indicating that after a tenant with a particularly large attendance ends its sessions, tenants throughout the day are unable to connect.
The following settings are common to all network configurations: Which of the following actions would MOST likely reduce this Issue? (Select TWO).
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