CompTIA CompTIA Certifications N10-008 Questions & Answers

• Question 221:

  Which of the following ports should a network administrator enable for encrypted log-in to a network switch?

  A. 22

  B. 23

  C. 80

  D. 123

  Correct Answer: A

  Port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that provides a secure and encrypted method for remote access to hosts by using public-key cryptography and challenge-response authentication. SSH can be used to log in to a network switch and configure it without exposing the credentials or commands to eavesdropping or tampering. Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an insecure and plaintext protocol for remote access. Port 80 is used by HTTP, which is a protocol for web communication. Port 123 is used by NTP, which is a protocol for time synchronization

• Question 222:

  A network security engineer is investigating a potentially malicious Insider on the network. The network security engineer would like to view all traffic coming from the user's PC to the switch without interrupting any traffic or having any downtime. Which of the following should the network security engineer do?

  A. Turn on port security.

  B. Implement dynamic ARP inspection.

  C. Configure 802.1Q.

  D. Enable port mirroring.

  Correct Answer: D

  Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for monitoring purposes. Port mirroring can be used to analyze the network traffic from a specific source, destination, or protocol

  without affecting the normal operation of the network. Port mirroring can also help to detect and troubleshoot network problems, such as performance issues, security breaches, or policy violations. The other options are not correct because

  they do not meet the requirements of the question. They are:

  Turn on port security. Port security is a feature that restricts the number and type of devices that can connect to a switch port. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, MAC address spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks. However,

  port security does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch.

  Implement dynamic ARP inspection. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a feature that validates the ARP packets on a network and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. DAI can help to protect the network from man-in-the-middle, denial-of-service,

  or data interception attacks. However, DAI does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch. Configure 802.1Q. 802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs)

  on a network. VLANs can help to segment the network into logical groups based on function, security, or performance. However, 802.1Q does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch.

  References1: Port Mirroring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications3: Port Security - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Dynamic ARP Inspection - an overview | ScienceDirect

  Topics5: 802.1Q - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

• Question 223:

  A hacker used a packet sniffer on the network to capture the hardware address of the server. Which of the following types of attacks can the hacker perform now?

  A. Piggybacking

  B. MAC spoofing

  C. Evil twin

  D. VLAN hopping

  Correct Answer: B

  MAC spoofing is a technique that allows a hacker to change the media access control (MAC) address of their network interface card (NIC) to impersonate another device on the network. By capturing the hardware address of the server, the hacker can spoof their MAC address to match the server's and bypass any MAC-based security measures, such as MAC filtering or MAC authentication. MAC spoofing can also be used to perform man-in- the-middle attacks, where the hacker intercepts and alters the traffic between two devices on the network. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 7, Section 7.3

• Question 224:

  A technician is troubleshooting servers with high CPU usage. While trying to connect, the technician needs to open a port for remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician open?

  A. 443

  B. 3321

  C. 8080

  D. 5900

  Correct Answer: D

  Port 5900 is the default port used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC), a graphical desktop-sharing system that allows remote access to another computer's screen, keyboard and mouse1. VNC is one of the tools that can be used for remote troubleshooting of servers with high CPU usage, as it enables the technician to see the server's desktop and perform actions on it. Port 5900 is also one of the ports listed in the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam objectives under the section "1.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues"2. The other ports are not commonly used for remote access. Port 443 is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the communication between a web browser and a web server3. Port 3321 is used for Telepathy Broker Service, a service that provides communication between applications and telephony devices4. Port 8080 is used for HTTP Alternate, an alternative port for HTTP that is often used by web servers for testing or proxy purposes5. References

  1: Port 5900: What Is It Used for and How to Open It for RDP

  2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications

  3: [What is HTTPS? - Definition from WhatIs.com]

  4: [Telepathy Broker Service - Port 3321 - TCP/UDP]

  5: [What is Port 8080? Why do some processes use this port?]

• Question 225:

  A support agent receives a report that a remote user's wired devices are constantly disconnecting and have slow speeds. Upon inspection, the support agent sees that the user's coaxial modem has a signal power of -97dB. Which of the following should the support agent recommend to troubleshoot the issue?

  A. Removing any splitters connected to the line

  B. Switching the devices to wireless

  C. Moving the devices closer to the modern

  D. Lowering the network speed

  Correct Answer: A

  A splitter is a device that divides a coaxial cable into two or more branches, allowing multiple devices to share the same cable connection. However, a splitter also reduces the signal strength and quality of the cable, which can affect the performance and reliability of the devices connected to it. A signal power of -97dB is very low and indicates a weak or poor cable signal, which can cause constant disconnections and slow speeds. The support agent should recommend removing any splitters connected to the line and connecting the coaxial modem directly to the cable outlet. This can help to improve the signal power and quality of the cable, and thus enhance the performance and reliability of the wired devices. Alternatively, the support agent can also suggest using a signal amplifier or booster, which is a device that increases the signal strength and quality of the cable, to compensate for the signal loss caused by the splitter. The other options are not correct because they are not the best recommendations to troubleshoot the issue. They are: Switching the devices to wireless. Switching the devices to wireless may not solve the issue, as the wireless connection may also depend on the cable signal and quality. Moreover, switching the devices to wireless may introduce other problems, such as interference, security, or compatibility issues, that can affect the performance and reliability of the devices. Moving the devices closer to the modem. Moving the devices closer to the modem may not solve the issue, as the problem is not related to the distance between the devices and the modem, but to the signal power and quality of the cable. Moreover, moving the devices closer to the modem may not be feasible or convenient for the user, depending on the layout and setup of the location. Lowering the network speed. Lowering the network speed may not solve the issue, as the problem is not related to the bandwidth or capacity of the network, but to the signal power and quality of the cable. Moreover, lowering the network speed may degrade the user experience and satisfaction, as the user may not be able to access or use the network services or applications as expected. References1: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications2: What is a Coaxial Splitter? - Definition from Techopedia3: What is a Signal Amplifier? - Definition from Techopedia

• Question 226:

  An application is not working. When the log files are reviewed, the application continuously tries to reach the following destination:

  

  Which of the following is most likely associated with this IP address?

  A. APIPA

  B. Default gateway

  C. Link local

  D. Loopback

  Correct Answer: D

  The IP address ::1/128 is the loopback address of the local host in IPv6, which is the equivalent of the 127.0.0.1 in IPv4. The loopback address is a virtual interface that loops all traffic back to itself, the local host. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes, such as checking the connectivity and configuration of the network stack. If an application tries to reach the loopback address, it means that it is not communicating with any external network or server, but only with itself. The other options are not correct because they are not associated with the IP address ::1/128. They are: APIPA. APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing, which is a feature that allows a device to assign itself a private IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.0.0/16 when no DHCP server is available. APIPA does not apply to IPv6 addresses, and it is not related to the loopback address. Default gateway. The default gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a local network to other networks. The default gateway is usually the first or last usable IP address in a subnet, and it is not the same as the loopback address. Link local. Link local addresses are IPv6 addresses that are used for communication within a single network segment or link. Link local addresses have the prefix fe80::/10, and they are not routable or reachable from other networks. Link local addresses are not the same as the loopback address. References1: Loopback Address - ::1/128 - ipUpTime.net2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications3: Reserved IP addresses - Wikipedia

• Question 227:

  A user reports that the internet seems slow on a workstation, but no other users have reported any issues. The server team confirms the servers are functioning normally. A technician suspects something specific to the user's computer is overutilizing bandwidth. Which of the following commands should the technician use to further investigate the issue?

  A. nmap

  B. tcpdump

  C. netstat

  D. nslookup

  Correct Answer: C

  References

  netstat - Wikipedia provides an overview of the netstat tool and its features. How to get current bandwidth usage from command line using built-in Linux tools?

  - Super User explains how to use netstat and other tools to monitor bandwidth usage on Linux systems.

  Get network utilization from command line - Super User shows how to use typeperf and other tools to monitor bandwidth usage on Windows systems.

• Question 228:

  Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).

  A. KVM size

  B. Switch depth

  C. Hard drive size

  D. Cooling fan speed

  E. Outlet amperage

  F. Server height

  Correct Answer: BF

  The size of a rack for installation depends on several factors, such as the available space, the power and cooling requirements, and the dimensions of the equipment to be installed. Two of the most important dimensions to consider are the switch depth and the server height. Switch depth refers to the length of the switch from front to back, which determines how much space is needed inside the rack. Server height refers to the vertical space occupied by the server, which is measured in rack units (RU) or U. One rack unit is equal to 1.75 inches. The height of the rack should be able to accommodate the total number of rack units needed for the servers and other devices, as well as some extra space for cable management and airflow. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 2, Section 2.5

• Question 229:

  An administrator wants to host services on the internet using an internal server. The server is configured with an RFC1918 address, and the administrator wants to make the services that are hosted on the server available on one of the company's public IP addresses. Which of the following should the administrator configure to allow this access?

  A. IPv6 tunneling

  B. Virtual IP

  C. Dual stack

  D. EUI-64

  Correct Answer: B

  References

  What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)? - Definition from Techopedia IPv6 Tunneling - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics Dual Stack Definition [EUI-64 - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

• Question 230:

  A software developer changed positions within a company and is now a sales engineer. The security team discovered that the former software developer had been modifying code to implement small features requested by customers. Which of the following would be the best thing for the security administrator to implement to prevent this from happening?

  A. A software patching policy

  B. A role-based access control policy

  C. Firewalls on the software development servers

  D. Longer and more complex password requirements

  Correct Answer: B

  A role-based access control (RBAC) policy is a security measure that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities within an organization. RBAC helps to enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC also helps to prevent unauthorized access, modification, or misuse of sensitive data or resources by limiting the scope and impact of user actions. A software patching policy, firewalls on the software development servers, and longer and more complex password requirements are all good security practices, but they do not directly address the issue of preventing the former software developer from modifying code. A software patching policy ensures that software is updated regularly to fix bugs and vulnerabilities, but it does not prevent a user from introducing new code changes. Firewalls on the software development servers protect the servers from external attacks, but they do not prevent a user from accessing the servers internally. Longer and more complex password requirements make it harder for attackers to guess or crack passwords, but they do not prevent a user from using their own valid credentials. References

  1: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) - Definition and Examples

  2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications

  3: [What is the Principle of Least Privilege? - Definition from Techopedia]