Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Security Alliance Certifications CCSK Questions & Answers

• Question 201:

  Virtual appliances can become bottlenecks because they cannot fail open and must intercept all traffic .

  A. False

  B. True

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 202:

  In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

  A. Only the cloud provider

  B. It is determined in the agreement between the entities

  C. Only the cloud consumer

  D. Both the cloud provider and consumer

  E. It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

  Correct Answer: C

  The virtual/abstracted infrastructure managed by a cloud consumer. That's the compute, network, and storage assets that they use from the resource pools. For example, the security of the virtual network, as defined and managed by the cloud consumer.

• Question 203:

  If a provider's infrastructure is not in scope, who is responsible for building compliant applications and services?

  A. The customer is responsible for compliant applications and services.

  B. It is up to the customer and provider to negotiate the solution.

  C. The provider must update or x whatever is not in compliance.

  D. No one. It is an accepted risk that is written into the terms and conditions with customers.

  E. The provider must create a separate tenant for each customer based on the various compliance regulations.

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 204:

  ENISA: As it relates to public cloud computing, in the European Data Protection law, the customer is considered to be the:

  A. Data controller

  B. Data owner

  C. Certificate holder

  D. Data processor

  E. Data manager

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 205:

  Immutable workloads make it faster to roll out updated versions because applications must be designed to handle individual nodes going down.

  A. False

  B. True

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 206:

  Which technique uses the management plane to detect various activities, such as file uploads or configuration changes?

  A. Event-driven security

  B. Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

  C. Action security

  D. Auditing and logging

  E. Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

  Correct Answer: A

  Event driven security: Certain cloud providers support event-driven code execution. In these cases, the management plane detects various activities-such as a file being uploaded to a designated object storage location or a configuration change to the network or identity management—which can in turn trigger code execution through a notification message, or via serverless hosted code. Security can define events for security actions and use the event-driven capabilities to trigger automated notification, assessment, remediation, or other security processes.

• Question 207:

  Which phase of the incident response lifecycle includes creating and validating alerts?

  A. Preparation

  B. Containment, Eradication, Recovery

  C. Detection and Analysis

  D. Auditing and Logging

  E. Post-mortem

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 208:

  ENISA: To mitigate credential compromise or theft, cloud provider can implement:

  A. HR background checks

  B. Hardening of virtual machines according to industry standard guidelines

  C. Data-at-rest encryption

  D. Portable applications using open APIs

  E. Anomaly detection capabilities

  Correct Answer: E

• Question 209:

  Why, in the event that an enterprise seeks a new provider for Security as a Service, must they concern themselves with the problems of translating and transporting existing data and log files in a forensically sound manner?

  A. The logging and reporting files are often heavily encrypted

  B. Providers may operate in foreign languages

  C. Providers don't want to lose business so they do not help the customer move out

  D. Logging and reporting is often treated haphazardly

  E. Providers often have proprietary standards for logging and reporting

  Correct Answer: E

• Question 210:

  In which layer is the management plane?

  A. Infrastructure layer

  B. Applistructure layer

  C. Metastructure layer

  D. Infostructure layer

  E. Overstructure layer

  Correct Answer: C