ACAMS CAMS Online Practice
Questions and Exam Preparation
CAMS Exam Details
Exam Code
:CAMS
Exam Name
:Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (the 6th edition)
Certification
:ACAMS Certifications
Vendor
:ACAMS
Total Questions
:830 Q&As
Last Updated
:May 25, 2026
ACAMS CAMS Online Questions &
Answers
Question 431:
Which key factor would result in the decision for a financial institution (FI) to exit a client relationship?
A. After assessing all risk factors the level of residual client risk exceeds the FI's risk appetite. B. The client is a registered charity known to remit funds to high risk geographies where there is limited due diligence information available. C. Closing the client accounts will help reduce the number of transaction monitoring alerts. D. Client transactions generate ongoing transaction monitoring alerts that did not result in any SAR/STR filings.
A. After assessing all risk factors the level of residual client risk exceeds the FI's risk appetite. The key factor that would result in the decision for a financial institution (FI) to exit a client relationship is when the level of residual client risk exceeds the FI's risk appetite. Residual client risk is the remaining risk after applying the FI's risk mitigation measures, such as customer due diligence, transaction monitoring, and suspicious activity reporting. Risk appetite is the level and type of risk that the FI is willing and able to accept in pursuit of its business objectives. If the residual client risk is higher than the risk appetite, the FI may decide to terminate the relationship to avoid potential regulatory, reputational, or operational consequences. The other options are not necessarily key factors for exiting a client relationship, because: The client is a registered charity known to remit funds to high risk geographies where there is limited due diligence information available. This option may indicate a higher level of inherent client risk, but it does not necessarily mean that the FI should exit the relationship. The FI may be able to apply enhanced due diligence, ongoing monitoring, and risk-based controls to mitigate the risk and comply with the regulatory requirements. The FI may also consider the nature and purpose of the client's activities, the source and destination of the funds, and the potential impact on the client's beneficiaries. Closing the client accounts will help reduce the number of transaction monitoring alerts. This option may suggest a possible benefit of exiting the relationship, but it is not a key factor for making the decision. The FI should not base its decision solely on the volume of transaction monitoring alerts, but rather on the quality and relevance of the alerts, the results of the investigation, and the risk assessment of the client. The FI should also ensure that its transaction monitoring system is properly calibrated and validated to avoid generating excessive or false alerts. Client transactions generate ongoing transaction monitoring alerts that did not result in any SAR/STR filings. This option may indicate a need for reviewing and improving the transaction monitoring system or the investigation process, but it does not necessarily imply that the FI should exit the relationship. The FI should not assume that the absence of SAR/STR filings means that the client is low risk or that the alerts are irrelevant. The FI should conduct a thorough and timely investigation of the alerts and document the rationale for filing or not filing a SAR/STR. The FI should also consider the overall risk profile of the client and the nature and frequency of the transactions.
Question 432:
Which risks are involved in a correspondent banking client's ownership and management structure? (Select Two.)
A. Regularity of board meetings B. Size of the management structure C. Status as a state, publicly, or privately held entity D. Length of time since the last Wolfsberg Group review E. Transparency of the ownership structure
C. Status as a state, publicly, or privately held entity E. Transparency of the ownership structure When dealing with correspondent banking clients, banks must evaluate the ownership and management structure of the client in order to assess the risks associated with the relationship. The status of the entity as a state, publicly, or privately held entity, as well as the transparency of the ownership structure, are important factors to consider when assessing these risks. Banks should also take into account the size of the management structure, the regularity of board meetings, and the length of time since the last Wolfsberg Group review in order to determine the risk associated with the correspondent banking relationship.
Question 433:
A compliance officer is tasked with implementing an enterprise-wide anti-money laundering program for a bank, which operates in multiple countries. Not all the bank products and services are available in all countries. Which three factors should be considered as part of the approach? (Choose three.)
A. The types of customers serviced by the bank B. The customer onboarding platform that will be used C. The extent of anti-money laundering regulations in the various countries D. The anti-money laundering risk posed by the products and services offered by the bank E. The amount of resources needed to implement the anti-money laundering program in the countries
A. The types of customers serviced by the bank C. The extent of anti-money laundering regulations in the various countries D. The anti-money laundering risk posed by the products and services offered by the bank A compliance officer should consider the following three factors as part of the approach to implement an enterprise-wide anti-money laundering program for a bank that operates in multiple countries: The types of customers serviced by the bank: Different types of customers may pose different levels of money laundering risk, depending on their nature, source of funds, geographic location, transaction patterns, and other factors. A compliance officer should identify and assess the money laundering risk associated with each customer type and segment, and apply appropriate due diligence measures, monitoring systems, and risk mitigation strategies accordingly12. The extent of anti-money laundering regulations in the various countries: A compliance officer should be aware of the legal and regulatory requirements and expectations for anti-money laundering compliance in each country where the bank operates, and ensure that the bank's policies and procedures are consistent with them. A compliance officer should also monitor any changes or updates in the anti- money laundering laws and regulations in the various countries, and adjust the bank's program accordingly34. The anti-money laundering risk posed by the products and services offered by the bank: Different products and services may have different features and functionalities that could be exploited by money launderers, such as anonymity, cross-border transfers, cash transactions, complex structures, or new technologies. A compliance officer should evaluate the money laundering risk associated with each product and service offered by the bank, and implement appropriate controls, safeguards, and oversight mechanisms to prevent and detect money laundering activities5 . References: 1: ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 2: Risk Assessments 2: FATF, Guidance for a Risk-Based Approach: The Banking Sector 3: ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 3: Compliance Standards for Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) 4: Deloitte, AML Program Effectiveness Reform 5: ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 4: AML Program Design [6]: OCC, Money Laundering: A Banker's Guide to Avoiding Problems
Question 434:
A branch manager for a small community bank has a new customer who deposits for EUR 50,000 checks into one account. Shortly thereafter, the customer goes to another branch and asks to transfer all but EUR 1,500 to three accounts in
different foreign jurisdictions.
Which suspicious activity should be the focus of the suspicious transaction report?
A. The customer opened the account with four large checks B. The customer goes to a different branch to make this transaction C. The customer transfers almost all of the funds out of the account D. The customer asks to transfer funds to accounts in three different foreign jurisdictions
D. The customer asks to transfer funds to accounts in three different foreign jurisdictions According to the ACAMS CAMS Certification Video Training Course1, one of the red flags for money laundering is "transferring funds to or from foreign countries or jurisdictions that are known to have weak anti- money laundering standards or are considered high-risk for money laundering or terrorist financing" (Module 2, Lesson 3, Part 2). This is also consistent with the suspicious activity report (SAR) criteria, which require financial institutions to report transactions that "involve funds derived from illegal activity or are intended or conducted to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activity" or "involve the use of the financial institution to facilitate criminal activity" (31 CFR ?1020.320(a)(2)). Therefore, the customer's request to transfer funds to accounts in three different foreign jurisdictions should be the focus of the SAR, as it may indicate an attempt to launder money or finance terrorism. References: ACAMS CAMS Certification Video Training Course [31 CFR ?1020.320 - Reports by banks of suspicious transactions]
Question 435:
Which of the following competent authorities should directly receive suspicious or unusual transaction reports?
A. law enforcement B. an independent judge C. financial intelligence unit D. central bank
C. financial intelligence unit According to the FATF Recommendations, the competent authority that should directly receive suspicious or unusual transaction reports is the financial intelligence unit (FIU). The FIU is a central, national agency responsible for receiving, analyzing and disseminating information related to money laundering and terrorist financing. The FIU should have operational independence and autonomy, and should be able to exchange information with other domestic and foreign authorities. The FIU should also provide feedback to the reporting entities on the use and value of their reports. References: CAMS Certification Package - 6th Edition | ACAMS1 CAMS Certifications: How to Get CAMS Certified | ACAMS2 Exam CAMS: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (the 6th edition)4 FATF Recommendations, Recommendation 29: Financial Intelligence Units http://www.fatf-gafi.org/media/fatf/documents/recommendations/pdfs/FATF%20Recommendations%202012 pdf
Question 436:
A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting. Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)
A. The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners. B. The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents. C. The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity. D. The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture. E. The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details.
A. The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners. C. The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity. A lack of information about beneficial owners is a red flag for potential money laundering or terrorist financing. It is important to identify who the actual owners of the company are to understand their potential risk exposure. Confusing details about the proposed business activity and lack of knowledge about the proposed business are also red flags for potential money laundering or terrorist financing. This could indicate that the proposed business activity is not legitimate and is being used to conceal illegal activities. Therefore, these two observations should be escalated to the compliance officer for further investigation.
Question 437:
Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure ? (Select Three.)
A. Introduction of new products or services. B. Restructuring of the FI's risk and compliance functions. C. Changes in the individuals overseeing the FI's product lines and sales strategies. D. Use of new technologies for delivering existing products. E. Mergers or acquisitions.
A. Introduction of new products or services. D. Use of new technologies for delivering existing products. E. Mergers or acquisitions. AML risk assessments must be updated when there are significant changes in business operations . Option A (Correct): New products (e.g., cryptocurrency services, trade finance ) introduce new AML risks . Option D (Correct): Technology changes (e.g., AI in transaction monitoring, new digital banking platforms ) impact fraud and AML controls . Option E (Correct): Mergers or acquisitions introduce new customer bases, jurisdictions, and compliance frameworks , requiring risk reevaluation . Option B (Incorrect): While compliance restructuring is important, it does not change inherent risk exposure . Option C (Incorrect): Management changes may affect oversight , but they do not directly alter risk exposure .
Question 438:
The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as required by the bank's internal compliance schedule. What should the KYC team manager do?
A. Submit a referral to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR). B. Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list. C. Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed. D. Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary.
D. Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary. Regular KYC reviews ensure that high-risk customers are monitored for potential changes in their risk profile . Option D (Correct): The KYC manager must determine why the required review was missed and implement corrective measures to prevent future failures. Option A (Incorrect): A missed review does not necessarily indicate suspicious activity , so filing a SAR at this stage is not appropriate . Option B (Incorrect): Removing a customer from the high-risk list without reassessment is a compliance violation . Option C (Incorrect): Suspending account access without due process may be legally questionable . Best Practices for KYC Compliance Management: Ensure automated KYC review tracking to avoid missed reviews. Conduct risk-based periodic reviews on high-risk customers. Implement escalation protocols for overdue KYC reviews.
Question 439:
What reputational risk consequence could a financial entity face for violating AML laws?
A. Seizure of assets B. Monetary penalties C. Increased audit costs to monitor behavior D. Loss of high-profile customers
D. Loss of high-profile customers Reputational risk is the potential for negative publicity, public perception, or legal action to adversely affect a financial entity's image, brand, or customer loyalty1. Violating AML laws can have significant reputational risks for financial entities, as they may be perceived as facilitating or enabling money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit activities. This can result in a loss of trust, credibility, and revenue from existing and potential customers, especially those who are high-profile, sensitive, or socially responsible23. Moreover, violating AML laws can also attract negative media attention, regulatory scrutiny, and legal action, which can further damage the reputation of the financial entity and expose it to additional sanctions, fines, or penalties4. References: 1: ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 1, page 16 2: ComplyAdvantage, 5 AML Reputational Risk Considerations for 2023, link 3: Exam-Answer, Reputational Risk Consequences for Violating AML Laws, link 4: Unit21, 8 AML Penalties, Fines, and Sanctions + Examples You Should Avoid, link Reference:https://www.ifc.org/wps/wcm/connect/e7e10e94-3cd8-4f4c-b6f8-1e14ea9eff80 /45464_IFC_AML_Report.pdf?MOD=AJPERESandCVID=mKKNshy
Question 440:
When a regulatory body requires international assistance in a money laundering inquiry, such assistance is typically obtained by
A. Filing a request under Egmont guidelines. B. Submitting a request for overseas assistance to the corresponding supervisory body. C. Contacting the Financial Action Task Force, Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development, or other international organizations and seeking their intervention. D. Communicating with the Head of Compliance for the financial institution.
A. Filing a request under Egmont guidelines. The Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) is a global network of FIUs that facilitates and promotes the exchange of information, knowledge, and cooperation among its members to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes1. The Egmont Group has developed operational guidance for international cooperation and information exchange among FIUs, which includes channels, procedures, and forms for making and receiving requests2. Filing a request under Egmont guidelines is therefore a common and effective way for a regulatory body to obtain international assistance in a money laundering inquiry, as it ensures that the request is made through the appropriate and secure channel, and that it meets the standards and expectations of the requested FIU. References: 1: Home - Egmont Group 2: EGMONT GROUP OF FINANCIAL INTELLIGENCE UNITS OPERATIONAL GUIDANCE FOR ...
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