An organization recently changed its BC and DR plans. Which of the following would best allow for the incident response team to test the changes without any impact to the business?
A. Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
B. Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
C. Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
D. Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
Correct Answer: A
performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios, is the best choice to test the changes in the BC (Business Continuity) and DR (Disaster Recovery) plans without impacting the business.
A tabletop drill involves gathering key stakeholders and walking through various hypothetical scenarios and how they would be handled based on the updated plans.This approach ensures that the organization can test its preparedness without causing any actual disruption or risk to business operations.
During a cybersecurity incident, one of the web servers at the perimeter network was affected by ransomware. Which of the following actions should be performed immediately?
A. Shut down the server.
B. Reimage the server.
C. Quarantine the server.
D. Update the OS to latest version.
Correct Answer: C
Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data.
A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?
A security analyst must review a suspicious email to determine its legitimacy. Which of the following should be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Evaluate scoring fields, such as Spam Confidence Level and Bulk Complaint Level
B. Review the headers from the forwarded email
C. Examine the recipient address field
D. Review the Content-Type header
E. Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server
F. Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email
Correct Answer: BF
Review the headers from the forwarded email: Examining the email headers can provide crucial information about the email's source, path, and any intermediaries it went through. This information can help identify signs of spoofing or suspicious behavior.
Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email: These three mechanisms (Sender Policy Framework - SPF, DomainKeys Identified Mail - DKIM, and Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance DMARC) are used to authenticate the sender's domain and reduce the likelihood of email spoofing. Checking these fields can provide insights into the authenticity of the email.
Question 25:
An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all employees were leaked online. Which of the following best describes the remediation that could reduce the impact of this situation?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Password changes
C. System hardening
D. Password encryption
Correct Answer: A
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization's systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials. References: CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives, [What Is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)?]
Question 26:
A. Integrate an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure
B. Create a compensating control item until the system can be fully patched
C. Accept the risk and decommission current assets as end of life
D. Request an exception and manually patch each system
Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?
A. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry
B. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX'TAXII format
C. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline
D. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert
Correct Answer: C
The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline.
Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face,
and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Data enrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation,
reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS's capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with
relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM.
The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company's industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and
best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses
based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious
IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.
A vulnerability analyst received a list of system vulnerabilities and needs to evaluate the relevant impact of the exploits on the business. Given the constraints of the current sprint, only three can be remediated. Which of the following represents the least impactful risk, given the CVSS3.1 base scores?
A. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0
B. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 7.2
C. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H - Base Score 6.4
D. AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:L/I:L/A:L - Base Score 6.5
Correct Answer: A
In the given options, the least impactful risk can be determined by looking at the CVSS Base Scores. The lower the base score, the less impactful the vulnerability. Among the given options, option A has the lowest base score of 6.0.
Question 29:
A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company's web application. The web application accepts files for a Bash script to be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision. Which of the following should the analyst suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?
A. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.
B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
C. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
D. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.
Correct Answer: B
This option involves changing the hash algorithm from the vulnerable MD5 to the more secure SHA-256. It addresses the hash collision vulnerability directly and doesn't require major changes to the existing infrastructure or script logic.
Question 30:
A security analyst needs to mitigate a known, exploited vulnerability related to an attack vector that embeds software through the USB interface. Which of the following should the analyst do first?
A. Conduct security awareness training on the risks of using unknown and unencrypted USBs.
B. Write a removable media policy that explains that USBs cannot be connected to a company asset.
C. Check configurations to determine whether USB ports are enabled on company assets.
D. Review logs to see whether this exploitable vulnerability has already impacted the company.
Correct Answer: C
When dealing with a known and exploited vulnerability related to an attack vector that involves embedding software through the USB interface, the primary concern is to immediately stop the active exploitation and prevent further attacks. Given the options provided, the answeer is the best
Check configurations for USB ports (Option C): This is the most immediate action to take. Disabling or securing USB ports on company assets will prevent the attacker from further exploiting the vulnerability through this attack vector. It's a quick and effective way to mitigate ongoing attacks.
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