Which statement is true when Oracle Enterprise Manager is used with virtual server pools?
A. Can create and delete a virtual server pool
B. Can only create a virtual server pool
C. Can only delete a virtual server pool
D. Cannot create or delete a virtual server pool. That is performed from the command line.
Correct Answer: A
Oracle Enterprise Manager effectively keeps your Oracle VM available and running efficiently. Specifically, it provides a graphical user interface for managing Oracle VM Server, guest virtual machines, and server pools. As with Oracle VM monitoring, administration of Oracle VM begins with the Virtualization Central page. You can perform administration tasks such as the following: Create, remove, and manage virtual server pools Register, deregister, edit, reboot, and stop virtual server Start, stop, suspend, resume, pause, un-pause, and edit guest virtual machines Note:
* A Server Pool is a logical grouping of one or more virtual servers that share common storage. A virtual server can belong to only one virtual server pool at a time. Guest virtual machines and resources are also associated with server pools. Oracle VM Server Pool is an aggregate target type in Enterprise Manager to represent the server pool of Oracle VM Servers.
Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Concepts, Virtualization Management, Administering Oracle VM
Question 22:
Which pack for Oracle Enterprise Manager would you use to manage a BPEL process?
A. Provisioning and Patch Automation Pack for Oracle Middleware
B. SOA Management Pack EE
C. Diagnostics Pack for Oracle Middleware
D. Real User Experience Insight Pack
Correct Answer: B
Oracle Enterprise Manager SOA Management Pack Enterprise Edition
Configuration information for the Oracle SOA Suite, Oracle Service Bus, and BPEL processes are collected and stored in the Oracle Enterprise Manager repository. With this information, administrators can:
View the historic configuration changes across the SOA Suite and Oracle Service Bus environment
Baseline a working configuration by saving it in the repository
Compare BPEL and Oracle Service Bus server and domain configuration parameters with other servers and domains
Compare BPEL process versions to observe changes across successive deployments
Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager SOA Management Pack Enterprise Edition, Data Sheet
Question 23:
The alerts retrieved by Oracle Enterprise Manager Connectors are ____________.
A. Stored in a third party database
B. Cached in the middleware
C. Stored in flat files
D. Stored in the Oracle Enterprise Manager repository
E. Not stored but forwarded by SNMP traps
Correct Answer: D
The Microsoft Operations Manager Connector enables Oracle Enterprise Manager to send alerts to and retrieve alerts from Microsoft Operations Manager (MOM). The retrieved alerts are stored in the Enterprise Manager repository and displayed through the Enterprise Manager console. Reference: Installing and Configuring the Microsoft Operations Manager Connector
Question 24:
What Oracle Enterprise Manager pack can you use to compare two database schemas?
A. Data Masking pack
B. Database Lifecycle Management pack
C. Database Diagnostics pack
D. Database Tuning pack
Correct Answer: B
Database Lifecycle Management Pack features include:
* Schema and Data Comparisons: Automate the comparison of database schema and data across Databases or saved baselines.
Note:
The Database Lifecycle Management Pack is a comprehensive solution that helps database, system, and application administrators automate the processes required to manage the Oracle Database Lifecycle. It eliminates manual and time
consuming tasks related to discovery, initial provisioning, patching, configuration management and ongoing change management. In addition the Database Lifecycle Management pack provides compliance frameworks for reporting and
management of industry and regulatory compliance standards.
Incorrect:
Not A: Oracle Data Masking Pack offers the ability to mask regulated or confidential data on test or development systems.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Enterprise manager SOA management Pack Enterprise Edition and WebLogic Server Management pack Enterprise (EE)?
A. SOA Management Pack EE is not a superset of the WebLogic Server management Pack EE.
B. SOA Management Pack EE cannot monitor the full software stack for Oracle SOA Suite, Oracle Service Bus, and Application Integration Architecture.
C. SOA Management Pack EE is a superset of WebLogic Server management pack EE.
D. SOA management Pack EE can monitor the full software stack for Oracle SOA SUITE, Oracle Service Bus, and Application Integration Architecture.
Correct Answer: AD
A, D (Not B, not C):
* SOA Management Pack Enterprise Edition
This pack supports the following Grid Control SOA targets:
Business Process Execution Language (BPEL)
Oracle Service Bus (OSB)
Oracle SOA Suite 11g Infrastructure (soa-infra)
Oracle SOA Suite 11g SOA Composites
This pack also supports the following Application Dependency and Performance (ADP) targets:
Business Process Execution Language (BPEL)
Oracle Enterprise Service Bus (OESB)
Oracle Secure Backup (OSB)
WebLogic Integration (WLI)
Oracle SOA Suite 11g SOA Composites
*
WebLogic Server Management Pack Enterprise Edition This pack offers a complete, cost-effective, and easy-to-use solution for managing Oracle Fusion Middleware, Oracle WebLogic Server, and Oracle Application Server. At a high level, this pack provides capabilities for application performance management, configuration management, service level management, coherence management as well as provisioning and patch automation for Oracle Application Server, Oracle Fusion Middleware, and/or Oracle WebLogic Server software.
Note:
*
Enterprise Manager offers the following management packs for Oracle Middleware Enterprise Management: WebLogic Server Management Pack Enterprise Edition SOA Management Pack Enterprise Edition Management Pack for WebCenter Suite Diagnostics Pack for Oracle Middleware Management Pack for Oracle Coherence
Question 26:
When you create reports using Information Publisher, which three statements are true?
A. You always start from the beginning when you create custom reports.
B. Both default categories and subcategories can be used for out of the-box reports.
C. Time-period and/or target parameters can be used for viewing reports.
D. Using reporting elements, you can add a variety of information to your report.
E. No additional customization is provided after the reporting elements are assembled.
Correct Answer: BCD
C: By declaring report parameters, you allow the user to control what data is shown in the report. There are two types of parameters: target and time-period.
D: Reporting elements are pre-defined content building blocks, that allow you to add a variety of information to your report. Some examples of reporting elements are charts, tables, and images.
Incorrect:
Not A: To create custom reports:
Choose whether to modify an existing report definition or start from scratch. If an existing report definition closely matches your needs, it is easy to customize it by using the Create Like function.
Not E: Custom Reports
Although the predefined report definitions that come with Information Publisher cover the most common reporting needs, you may want to create specialized reports. If a predefined report comes close to meeting your information
requirements, but not quite, you can use Information Publisher's Create Like function to create a new report definition based on one of the existing reports definitions.
Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Administrator's Guide, sing Information Publisher
Question 27:
Which two statements are true about metrics in Oracle Enterprise manager?
A. Metric extensions are the new way to create metrics that is introduced in Oracle Enterprise manager Cloud Control.
B. User-defined metrics are not-supported for the targets monitored by oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control.
C. User-defined metrics do not need to be migrated to metrics extensions.
D. Migration of collected, user-defined metric historic data is not supported with oracle Enterprise manager Cloud Control.
E. Previous user-defined metrics do not need to be displayed or deleted after they are migrated to metric extensions.
Correct Answer: AE
A, E (not B, not C, not D):
*
Metric Extensions are the next generation of User-Defined Metrics, which enable you to extend Enterprise Manager to monitor conditions specific to the enterprise's environment by creating new metrics for any target type. The migration of existing User-Defined Metrics to Metric Extensions is supported through the Enterprise Manager Command Line Interface (EM CLI).
Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Introduction, Metric Extensions
Question 28:
Identify four capabilities of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management feature evaluate the compliance of targets and systems.
A. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standards
B. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standard rules
C. Providing advice on how to bring a target and system into compliance
D. Providing advice on how to bring a target, but not a system into compliance
E. Defining, customizing, and managing custom compliance formulas
F. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance frameworks
Correct Answer: ABDF
Features of compliance management:
(A)
Compliance Standards
(B)
Compliance Standard Rules
(F)
Compliance Framework
C (not D): The Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management solution:
*
Advises on how to change configuration to bring targets and systems into compliance with respect to best practices
*
Determines if targets and systems have valid configuration settings automatically
*
Determines if targets and systems are exposed to configuration-related vulnerabilities automatically
Note:
(A) A compliance framework maps to a set of compliance standards that perform a collection of checks following broadly accepted best practices to ensure that IT infrastructure, applications, business services and processes are organized, configured, managed, and monitored correctly. A compliance standard evaluation can provide information related to platform compatibility, known issues affecting other customers with similar configurations, security vulnerabilities, patch recommendations, and more. Customers can run an evaluation of compliance standards in order to learn about how they can bring their systems into compliance with recommended best practices and improve the stability and security of their systems.
Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Extensibility Programmer's Guide, About the Compliance Management Solution
Question 29:
Identify four activities that can be performed by enabling oracle Enterprise manager repeat notifications.
A. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same metric
B. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same availability alert
C. Send email notifications based on a designated repeat frequency.
D. Limit email notifications by designating a maximum repeat notification.
E. Get an email copy of a notification for regulatory compliance.
F. Send email notifications based on a rotating calendar date.
Correct Answer: BCDF
Repeat notifications allow administrators to be notified repeatedly until an alert is either acknowledged or the number of Maximum Repeat Notifications has been reached (B, , D, not A). Enterprise Manager supports repeat notification for all notification methods (e-mail, OS command, PL/SQL procedure, and SNMP trap). To enable this feature for a notification method, select the Send Repeat Notifications option. In addition to setting the maximum number of repeat notifications, you can also set the time interval at which the notifications are sent (C, F).
Question 30:
Identify three consolidation choices handled by Oracle Enterprise Cloud Control Consolidation Planner.
A. Physical-to-virtual
B. Database consolidation on Exadata
C. Application consolidation on Exalogic
D. WebLogic consolidation on Exalytics
E. Virtual-to-physical
Correct Answer: ABC
Using Enterprise Manager, you can transform existing data centers into a Cloud environment. Before setting up a Cloud, you should map out your infrastructure requirements, such as the physical and virtual networks, storage arrays, applications and so on.
The Enterprise Manager Consolidation Planner is a powerful tool that helps administrators plan the Cloud architecture. It allows you to identify source and destination targets and applicable technical and functional constraints such as where the application can reside, and so on. You can generate consolidation advisories that may include plans to move from Physical to Virtual (P2V) (A) , Physical to Physical (P2P), or Physical to an Exadata solution (B). The Consolidation Planner can also be used to identify the database consolidation plan which is helpful when setting up Database-as-a-Service (DBaaS).
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