CheckPoint Checkpoint Certifications 156-215.81 Questions & Answers

• Question 141:

  Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

  A. Inline

  B. Explicit

  C. Implicit drop

  D. Implicit accept

  Correct Answer: B

  An explicit rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria. Explicit rules are displayed in the Rule Base and can be modified by the administrator. References: Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R81.20 Course Overview, page 12.

• Question 142:

  What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

  A. clish

  B. Monitor

  C. Read-only

  D. Bash

  Correct Answer: A

  The default shell of Gaia CLI is clish, which stands for Check Point command line interface shell. It provides a user-friendly interface to configure and manage Check Point products. References: Check Point Gaia Administration Guide

• Question 143:

  Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

  A. Object Browser

  B. Object Editor

  C. Object Navigator

  D. Object Explorer

  Correct Answer: D

  The Object Explorer is the part of SmartConsole that allows administrators to add, edit, delete, and clone objects. Objects are entities that represent network elements, such as hosts, networks, gateways, services, users, etc. The Object Explorer provides a tree view of all the objects in the database and allows searching, filtering, and grouping them.

  References: Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 User Guide

• Question 144:

  Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

  A. CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine

  B. CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

  C. CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service

  D. CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

  Correct Answer: D

  CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine is the tool that allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS. CPUSE is a web-based tool that simplifies the installation of software updates, hotfixes, and upgrade packages on Gaia OS. The other options are not valid tools for updating Gaia OS and Check Point products.

• Question 145:

  What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

  A. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, CandC Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

  B. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

  C. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, CandC Protection, IPS

  D. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

  Correct Answer: D

  This answer is correct because these are the software components that are used by the pre-defined Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R81.20 and higher. These profiles provide zero-maintenance protection from zero-day threats and continuously and autonomously ensure that your protection is up-to-date with the latest cyber threats and prevention technologies. The other answers are not correct because they either include software components that are not part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, CandC Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation, or they omit some of the software components that are part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, and Macro Extraction.

  Autonomous Threat Prevention Management - Check Point Software Check Point Quantum R81.20 (Titan) Release Threat Prevention R81.20 Best Practices - Check Point Software Check Point R81

• Question 146:

  You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

  A. backup

  B. logswitch

  C. Database Revision

  D. snapshot

  Correct Answer: D

  The back up solution that should be used to ensure your database can be restored on that device is snapshot. A snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system. A snapshot can be used to restore a Security Gateway or Security Management Server to its previous state at any time . Therefore, the correct answer is D. snapshot.

• Question 147:

  Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

  A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

  B. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

  C. Quicker than Full sync

  D. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

  Correct Answer: A

  The statement that is not true about Delta synchronization is that it uses UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161. The correct port number for Delta synchronization is 811612. The other statements are true about Delta synchronization. References: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81,

• Question 148:

  What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

  A. license view

  B. fw ctl tab -t license -s

  C. show license -s

  D. cplic print

  Correct Answer: D

  The command cplic print displays the installed licenses and their expiration dates on the CLI. References: Check Point CLI Reference Card

• Question 149:

  Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

  A. Network Bandwidth Saturation

  B. Buffer Overflow

  C. SYN Flood

  D. SQL Injection

  Correct Answer: A

  A firewall can NOT prevent a network bandwidth saturation attack, which is a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack that aims to consume all the available bandwidth of a target network or device, p. 9. A firewall can prevent other types of attacks, such as buffer overflow, SYN flood, and SQL injection, by inspecting packets and applying security rules, p. 11-12.

  , 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test

• Question 150:

  An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases.

  Which of these statements is FALSE?

  A. Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

  B. These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

  C. A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

  D. Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

  Correct Answer: C

  The statement that a Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title is false. A Sectional Title is a visual divider that helps organize and navigate large rule bases. It does not affect the rule enforcement order or the rule functionality. Disabling a Sectional Title does not disable the rules under it. To disable multiple rules, you need to select them individually or use Shift+Click or Ctrl+Click to select them in bulk, and then right-click and choose Disable Rule(s). The other statements are true. Section titles are not sent to the gateway side, they are only displayed in SmartConsole. These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement. Sectional Titles do not need to be created in SmartConsole, they can also be created using SmartConsole CLI or API commands.References: [Sectional Titles], [SmartConsole CLI Guide], [SmartConsole API Reference Guide]