While performing a dynamic analysis of a malicious file, a security analyst notices the memory address changes every time the process runs. Which of the following controls is most likely preventing the analyst from finding the proper memory address of the piece of malicious code?
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A
Address space layout randomization
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B
Data execution prevention
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAddress space layout randomization changes where executable code, libraries, stacks, and other memory regions are placed between runs. Consequently, the malicious code does not retain one predictable memory address during repeated dynamic analysis. Data execution prevention restricts execution permissions, while a stack canary detects certain stack corruption rather than relocating memory.
An incident response team member is triaging a Linux server. The output is shown below:  Which of the following is the adversary most likely trying to do?
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A
Create a backdoor root account named zsh.
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B
Execute commands through an unsecured service account.
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C
Send a beacon to a command-and-control server.
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D
Perform a denial-of-service attack on the web server.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe web log contains a multipart request with a command-like value ending in whoami, indicating an attempt to execute a system command through the web application. The account listing includes service accounts with restricted shells, so the activity fits command execution through an unsecured service account. It does not create a root account or demonstrate beaconing or resource exhaustion.
Which of the following is a reason why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?
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A
To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
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B
To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
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C
To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
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D
To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis
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Correct answerA
ExplanationProper evidence handling establishes integrity, traceability, and documented custody from collection through reporting. Those safeguards support a legally acceptable report by demonstrating that the evidence was not improperly altered or substituted if the matter reaches court. Lessons learned and root cause analysis may use the evidence, but they do not capture the legal importance of its handling.
Results of a SOC customer service evaluation indicate high levels of dissatisfaction with the inconsistent services provided after regular work hours. To address this, the SOC lead drafts a document establishing customer expectations regarding the SOC's performance and quality of services. Which of the following documents most likely fits this description?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA service-level agreement defines measurable expectations for service performance and quality, including availability, response coverage, and support commitments. Establishing those expectations directly addresses inconsistent after-hours SOC service and gives the customer and SOC a common standard against which delivery can be evaluated.
Question 5
Multiple choice
An organization has established a formal change management process after experiencing several critical system failures over the past year. Which of the following are key factors that the change management process will include in order to reduce the impact of system failures? (Select two).
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A
Ensure users the document system recovery plan prior to deployment.
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B
Perform a full system-level backup following the change.
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C
Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made.
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D
Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.
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E
Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems.
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F
Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.
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Correct answersC, D
ExplanationAn audit tool creates visibility into which changes are actually being made, supporting review and accountability when an unexpected failure occurs. Dependency analysis identifies systems and assets that rely on the changed component, exposing the potential blast radius before deployment. Together, these controls track the change and reveal where its effects can propagate.
Question 6
Multiple choice
Which of the following best describe the external requirements that are imposed for incident management communication? (Choose two).
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A
Law enforcement involvement
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B
Compliance with regulatory requirements
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C
Transparency to stockholders
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D
Defined SLAs regarding services
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E
Industry advocacy group participation
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F
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Correct answersA, B
ExplanationLaw enforcement involvement creates an external communication path for reporting criminal activity, coordinating evidence, and supporting an investigation. Compliance with regulatory requirements can also impose notifications, recipients, and deadlines. Both obligations originate outside the incident response team's internal service arrangements.
During a security incident, security tools quarantine a device and create a disk image. During the analysis, the image is corrupted. Which of the following best describes how the analyst should proceed with the investigation?
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A
Remediate the corruption that just occurred.
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B
Repair with bootable media.
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C
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D
Restore from an archived copy.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA corrupted working disk image should not be repaired or used as the basis for continued forensic conclusions because repair attempts can alter its contents further. Restoring an archived copy provides a previously preserved acquisition from which analysis can restart. Rebuilding the device or repairing boot data changes the system rather than recovering a dependable copy of the collected evidence.
An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet: /wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet?
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A
Limit user creation to administrators only.
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B
Limit layout creation to administrators only.
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C
Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
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D
Set the directory V2 to read only for all users.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe request invokes wp_insert_user and explicitly assigns the administrator role, indicating an attempt to create a privileged account through the vulnerable endpoint. Restricting user creation to authorized administrators blocks that objective at the relevant function. Making directories read-only addresses file writes, not the application's user-creation operation.
A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details 1. ID 2. Name 3. Description 4. Classification of information 5. Responsible party In which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information?
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A
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B
Change control documentation
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C
Incident response playbook
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA risk register records individual risks in a structured inventory so they can be tracked and owned. An ID and name uniquely identify each entry, the description and information classification establish context and impact, and the responsible party establishes accountability. Change documentation and incident plans organize changes or responses rather than maintaining this risk inventory.
Question 10
Multiple choice
While a security analyst for an organization was reviewing logs from web servers. the analyst found several successful attempts to downgrade HTTPS sessions to use cipher modes of operation susceptible to padding oracle attacks. Which of the following combinations of configuration changes should the organization make to remediate this issue? (Select two).
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A
Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3.
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B
Remove cipher suites that use CBC.
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C
Configure the server to prefer ephemeral modes for key exchange.
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D
Require client browsers to present a user certificate for mutual authentication.
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E
Configure the server to require HSTS.
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F
Remove cipher suites that use GCM.
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Correct answersA, B
ExplanationTLS 1.3 removes obsolete protocol behavior and cipher choices associated with older downgrade targets, so preferring it reduces exposure to those sessions. CBC modes are susceptible to padding oracle attacks when error behavior leaks padding validity, so removing CBC cipher suites eliminates that mechanism. GCM should remain because it is not a CBC padding mode.
Question 11
Single choice
A company was able to reduce triage time by focusing on historical trend analysis. The business partnered with the security team to achieve a 50% reduction in phishing attempts year over year. Which of the following action plans led to this reduced triage time?
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A
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B
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C
Awareness, education, and training
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAwareness, education, and training address phishing at the user and business-process level by improving recognition, reporting, and avoidance of malicious messages. Reducing successful or recurring phishing attempts decreases the number of cases requiring analyst triage, which supports the measured year-over-year improvement. Patching and configuration management do not directly correct this human-targeted pattern.
Question 12
Single choice
A security analyst needs to identify a computer based on the following requirements to be mitigated: The attack method is network-based with low complexity. No privileges or user action is needed. The confidentiality and availability level is high, with a low integrity level. Given the following CVSS 3.1 output: Computer1: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Computer2: CVSS3.1/AV:L/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Computer3: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Computer4: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Which of the following machines should the analyst mitigate?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationComputer4 exactly matches the required CVSS vector: AV:N is network-based, AC:L is low complexity, PR:N requires no privileges, and UI:N requires no user interaction. Its impact values are C:H, I:L, and A:H, matching high confidentiality, low integrity, and high availability impact. Each other computer differs in at least one required exploitability metric.
Question 13
Single choice
A security analyst reviews a packet capture and identifies the following output as anomalous:  Which of the following activities explains the output?
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A
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B
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C
Socat's proxying traffic using the urgent flag
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe packets have FIN, PSH, and URG flags set together and target multiple destination ports. That unusual flag combination is characteristic of an Nmap Xmas scan, which sends deliberately abnormal TCP probes and infers port states from the responses or lack of responses. A normal web scan or proxy connection would not explain the repeated FPU probes across many ports.
Question 14
Single choice
Which of the following evidence collection methods is most likely to be acceptable in court cases?
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A
Copying all access files at the time of the incident
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B
Creating a file-level archive of all files
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C
Providing a full system backup inventory
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D
Providing a bit-level image of the hard drive
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA bit-level image creates a forensic copy of the entire drive, including allocated files, deleted data, file-system metadata, and unallocated space. Investigators can analyze that copy while preserving the original medium and validate its integrity with hashes. File archives and ordinary backups omit evidence that may be important in court.
Question 15
Single choice
A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company's website: <INPUT TYPE="IMAGE" SRC="javascript:alert(`test');"> Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe dangerous value becomes an attack when a browser interprets it as active markup or script. Context-appropriate output encoding converts significant characters into a representation the browser treats as data rather than executable content. This breaks the execution path at rendering time, which directly prevents the reflected value from becoming an XSS payload.
Question 16
Single choice
The Chief Information Security Officer wants the same level of security to be present whether a remote worker logs in at home or at a coffee shop. Which of the following should be recommended as a starting point?
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A
Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures
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B
Passwordless authentication
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationStandard-issue laptops give remote employees the same centrally selected and managed endpoint platform regardless of whether they connect from home or a coffee shop. The organization can apply a consistent security baseline, configurations, and endpoint controls to those devices. Passwordless authentication addresses only login security, while serverless workloads do not standardize the worker's endpoint.
Question 17
Single choice
Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?
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A
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B
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C
National Institute of Standards and Technology
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationMITRE ATT&CK catalogs adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures based on observed attacker behavior. Analysts use its organized knowledge base to understand how cybercriminals pursue objectives and to map defensive coverage against those behaviors. ZenMAP and theHarvester are operational tools, while a standards institute is not itself a TTP catalog.
Question 18
Single choice
Which of the following is the best metric to use when reviewing and addressing findings that caused an incident?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMean time to remediate measures the elapsed time required to correct a finding and remove the condition that enabled an incident. It therefore evaluates how efficiently identified weaknesses are addressed. Detection measures discovery, response measures reaction, and restoration measures return of service.
Question 19
Single choice
Which SOAR design applies appropriate guardrails to incident response?
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A
Automatically isolate any business system whenever a single low-confidence alert fires
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B
Automate deterministic enrichment, but require approval and rollback for disruptive actions
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C
Require manual approval for every lookup, formatting step, and ticket update
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D
Measure orchestration quality only by the number of actions executed without people
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDeterministic enrichment is repeatable, low-disruption work, so automating it improves response speed and consistency. Isolation and other disruptive actions can affect business availability, making explicit approval an appropriate decision gate. A defined rollback provides recovery if the action has an unacceptable effect, preserving both automation value and operational control.
Question 20
Single choice
Security awareness and compliance programs are most effective at reducing the likelihood and impact of attacks from:
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A
advanced persistent threats.
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSecurity awareness teaches personnel to recognize manipulation, follow handling rules, and report suspicious behavior, while compliance programs establish and enforce acceptable conduct. These measures directly reduce accidental or malicious actions by people who already have organizational access, making them most effective against insider threats. External actors require additional technical and operational defenses.
Question 21
Single choice
Which of the following is the best reason why organizations need operational security controls?
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A
To supplement areas that other controls cannot address
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B
To limit physical access to areas that contain sensitive data
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C
To assess compliance automatically against a secure baseline
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D
To prevent disclosure by potential insider threats
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOperational controls are carried out through people and day-to-day processes, so they supplement gaps that technical or managerial controls cannot fully address. Activities such as response procedures and security operations provide coverage where automated mechanisms or written governance alone are insufficient. The other choices describe narrower control outcomes.
Question 22
Single choice
During a cybersecurity incident, one of the web servers at the perimeter network was affected by ransomware. Which of the following actions should be performed immediately?
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A
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B
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C
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D
Update the OS to latest version.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationQuarantining the ransomware-affected server isolates it from other systems while preserving its current state for investigation. Immediate containment reduces the opportunity for the malware to spread or communicate further. Reimaging and updating are recovery or remediation activities that should follow containment and necessary evidence collection.
Question 23
Multiple choice
During a company's most recent incident, a vulnerability in custom software was exploited on an externally facing server by an APT. The lessons-learned report noted the following: 1. The development team used a new software language that was not supported by the security team's automated assessment tools. 2. During the deployment, the security assessment team was unfamiliar with the new language and struggled to evaluate the software during advanced testing. Therefore, the vulnerability was not detected. 3. The current IPS did not have effective signatures and policies in place to detect and prevent runtime attacks on the new application. To allow this new technology to be deployed securely going forward, which of the following will BEST address these findings? (Choose two.)
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A
Train the security assessment team to evaluate the new language and verify that best practices for secure coding have been followed
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B
Work with the automated assessment-tool vendor to add support for the new language so these vulnerabilities are discovered automatically
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C
Contact the human resources department to hire new security team members who are already familiar with the new language
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D
Run the software on isolated systems so when they are compromised, the attacker cannot pivot to adjacent systems
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E
Instruct only the development team to document the remediation steps for this vulnerability
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F
Outsource development and hosting of the applications in the new language to a third-party vendor so the risk is transferred to that provider
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Correct answersA, B
ExplanationTraining enables the security assessment team to evaluate the new language directly and verify secure coding practices during advanced testing. Adding language support to the automated assessment tool closes the separate coverage gap that prevented automatic discovery. Together, these measures improve both expert review and repeatable automated detection before deployment.
Question 24
Single choice
A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks?
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A
A web application firewall
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B
A network intrusion detection system
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA web application firewall analyzes HTTP requests at the application layer, where SQL injection payloads appear in parameters, forms, and URLs. It can use the observed attack pattern to log, filter, and block similar malicious requests before they reach the application. A vulnerability scanner identifies weaknesses, but it does not sit inline to prevent future exploit attempts.
Question 25
Single choice
An employee downloads a freeware program to change the desktop to the classic look of legacy Windows. Shortly after the employee installs the program, a high volume of random DNS queries begin to originate from the system. An investigation on the system reveals the following: Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' Which of the following is possibly occurring?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAdd-MpPreference adds an exclusion path to the endpoint protection configuration. Files under that location can then avoid normal antivirus inspection, helping the installed program conceal malicious components or activity. Altering a defensive tool to reduce detection is defense evasion, regardless of the separate DNS traffic the program generates.
Question 26
Single choice
Encrypted outbound connections occur every five minutes from one workstation to a rarely contacted host. Payload decryption is unavailable. Which analysis is most appropriate?
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A
Exclude the traffic because encrypted payloads provide no security evidence.
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B
Identify the application solely from the destination port number.
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C
Analyze flow timing and volume, then corroborate with endpoint telemetry.
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D
Declare compromise because repeated connections share one destination.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationEncryption prevents payload inspection, but connection metadata still provides useful behavioral evidence. Regular five-minute timing, transferred volume, and the unusual destination can characterize the flow without claiming what application or content it carries. Endpoint telemetry can then corroborate the network pattern by identifying the initiating process and related workstation activity.
Question 27
Single choice
A cybersecurity analyst is researching operational data to develop a script that will detect the presence of a threat on corporate assets. Which of the following contains the most useful information to produce this script?
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A
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B
Protocol analysis captures
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOpenloC files contain structured indicators that describe artifacts associated with malicious activity. Those indicators give the analyst concrete values and conditions that can be translated into script logic for checking corporate assets. API documentation explains interfaces, captures show particular traffic, and ATT&CK reports describe behaviors rather than directly supplying indicator definitions.
Question 28
Single choice
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
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A
function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
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B
function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
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C
function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" }
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D
function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk `END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe nested dig operations derive routing ownership information for the supplied IP address. The reverse lookup is filtered with grep for a PTR result, tail isolates the relevant record, and the resulting address data is queried through the origin ASN namespace. That association is useful for detecting unexpected network-routing ownership.
Question 29
Single choice
A security analyst investigates a malware alert from a critical system. The following information is present in the ticket:  Which of the following should the analyst do first?
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A
Block the suspicious IP address 128.210.175.23.
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B
Determine whether sssh is a malicious program.
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C
Delete the suspicious files.
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe ticket identifies sssh as both an unknown file and a suspicious running process, but that classification alone does not establish that it is malware. The analyst should first determine whether sssh is malicious by examining its behavior and associated artifacts. Validation guides the response and avoids deleting files or blocking infrastructure before the relationship to the alert is established.
Question 30
Single choice
Monthly raw finding counts fell after half the endpoints stopped reporting. Which measure better supports lifecycle improvement decisions?
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A
A defined risk-tier rate using consistent populations, timestamps, and validated closure criteria
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B
The lower raw count without noting the change in endpoint coverage
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C
The total number of scanner plugins enabled during each month
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D
A count of closed tickets regardless of age, risk, recurrence, or validation
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA defined risk-tier rate keeps the measured population and timing consistent, so changes across months reflect security performance instead of missing endpoint data. Validated closure criteria also distinguish genuine remediation from ticket activity alone. This supports lifecycle decisions because severity, exposure, age, and confirmed resolution can be compared on a stable basis.
Question 31
Single choice
A Chief Finance Officer receives an email from someone who is possibly impersonating the company's Chief Executive Officer and requesting a financial operation. Which of the following should an analyst use to verify whether the email is an impersonation attempt?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationDKIM lets the receiving system validate a cryptographic signature associated with the sending domain and confirm that signed message content was not altered in transit. A failed or absent expected DKIM result supports investigation of domain impersonation, while SMTP merely transports the message.
Question 32
Single choice
Given the Nmap request below:  Which of the following actions will an attacker be able to initiate directly against this host?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe scan reports TCP port 22 open and identifies its service as SSH. An attacker can directly submit repeated username and password attempts to an exposed SSH authentication service, enabling a brute-force attack. The other listed ports are closed or filtered, and password sniffing or ARP spoofing would require traffic visibility or local network positioning not established here.
Question 33
Single choice
A security engineer is reviewing security products that identify malicious actions by users as part of a company's insider threat program. Which of the following is the most appropriate product category for this purpose?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationUEBA analyzes user and entity activity, establishes behavioral baselines, and identifies deviations that can indicate malicious or compromised insiders. This directly supports an insider threat program focused on suspicious user actions. SCAP standardizes security configuration information, SOAR automates response workflows, and a WAF filters attacks directed at web applications.
Question 34
Single choice
A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company's current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the following:  Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationVulnerability 2 combines all three urgent SMITTEN conditions: it is malware exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is externally exposed. Those current threat and exposure factors make active exploitation more actionable despite its lower CVSS base score. The other entries lack at least one of these three conditions.
Question 35
Single choice
A security administrator needs to import Pll data records from the production environment to the test environment for testing purposes. Which of the following would best protect data confidentiality?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationData masking replaces or obscures sensitive PII values while preserving a usable structure for application testing. Test personnel and systems can therefore work with representative records without receiving the original confidential values. Hashing is not suitable when realistic field formats must remain usable, while encoding and watermarking do not conceal the underlying information.
Question 36
Single choice
A web application has a function to retrieve content from an internal URL to identify CSRF attacks in the logs. The security analyst is building a regular expression that will filter out the correctly formatted requests. The target URL is https://10.1.2.3/api, and the receiving API only accepts GET requests and uses a single integer argument named "id." Which of the following regular expressions should the analyst use to achieve the objective?
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A
^(?!https://10\.1\.2\.3/api\?id=[0-9]+)
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B
^https://10\.1\.2\.3/api\?id=\d+
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C
(?:^https://10\.1\.2\.3/api\?id=[0-9]+)
-
D
^https://10\.1\.2\.3/api\?id=[0-9]+$
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe expression anchors the HTTPS endpoint at address 10.1.2.3 and its API path at the beginning of the string. It requires the id parameter to contain one or more digits, while the final anchor prevents trailing parameters or characters. Escaped periods and the escaped question mark are treated literally.
Question 37
Single choice
A security analyst reviews a SIEM alert related to a suspicious email and wants to verify the authenticity of the message: SPF = PASS DKIM = FAIL DMARC = FAIL Which of the following did the analyst most likely discover?
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A
An insider threat altered email security records to mask suspicious DNS resolution traffic.
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B
The message was sent from an authorized mail server but was not signed.
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C
Log normalization corrupted the data as it was brought into the central repository.
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D
The email security software did not process all of the records correctly.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSPF passing means the sending server's IP address was authorized to send mail for the checked domain. DKIM failing means the message lacked a valid cryptographic signature, and DMARC failed because its authentication and alignment requirements were not satisfied. This combination supports a message sent through an authorized mail server but not successfully signed for DMARC validation.
Question 38
Single choice
An analyst notices that logs contain multiple events for computer account changes during monthly patch maintenance windows, resulting in a flood of tickets. The events generated are from the same system and time frame. The analyst determines that these tickets could be closed without human interaction. Which of the following is the best tool for automatically closing tickets containing the same information?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSOAR can match tickets against defined conditions, correlate repeated events from the same system and maintenance window, and execute an approved closure workflow. This removes unnecessary human handling while applying the decision consistently. A SIEM generates and correlates alerts, but SOAR performs the automated response action on the tickets.
Question 39
Single choice
A systems administrator is reviewing after-hours traffic flows from data-center servers and sees regular outgoing HTTPS connections from one of the servers to a public IP address. The server should not be making outgoing connections after hours. Looking closer, the administrator sees this traffic pattern around the clock during work hours as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
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A
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B
-
C
Anomalous activity on unexpected ports
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D
Network host IP address scanning
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E
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Correct answerA
ExplanationC2 beaconing activity commonly produces regular outbound connections from a compromised host to a fixed external destination so the host can check in and receive instructions. The around-the-clock HTTPS pattern is especially suspicious because the server has no expected reason for after-hours connections. Exfiltration usually emphasizes data transfer volume, while scanning would involve connections to many target addresses or ports.
Question 40
Single choice
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDNS is a shared dependency for users in multiple locations attempting to reach external SaaS resources. Reviewing DNS logs first can reveal query floods, resolution failures, abnormal request volume, or attacks against the naming infrastructure that would make many unrelated services appear unavailable. Web server logs are limited to an individual server and would not cover organization-wide external name resolution.
Question 41
Multiple choice
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersA, C
ExplanationA hostname identifies the specific server that needs remediation, allowing the infrastructure team to locate and assign the affected asset. CVE details identify the vulnerability and provide the technical basis for selecting the relevant patch. Both asset identity and vulnerability identity are needed to remediate quickly and accurately.
Question 42
Single choice
Which of the following choices is most likely to cause obstacles in vulnerability remediation?
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A
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B
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C
Organizational governance
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationProprietary systems can depend on vendor-controlled code, specialized hardware, restricted update processes, or unavailable patches. Those dependencies can prevent an organization from creating or deploying a remediation on its own. Prioritization and governance guide remediation, whereas proprietary constraints can obstruct it directly.
Question 43
Single choice
A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://office365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/ logon. Which of the following is most likely true?
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A
This is a normal password change URL.
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B
The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
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C
A new VPN gateway has been deployed.
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D
A social engineering attack is underway.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe outbound destination imitates the company's name and references an Office 365 password, but it differs from the established VPN logon domain. That deceptive naming is intended to make users trust a fraudulent credential page, which is characteristic of a social engineering attack. A normal password service or new gateway would use an authorized, documented company destination.
Question 44
Single choice
Before an incident occurs, which activity best demonstrates that the response capability is operationally ready?
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A
Publishing a plan that lists the standard incident phases
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B
Buying forensic tools for storage in the security office
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C
Recording vendor names in the asset inventory
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D
Exercising current access, contacts, tools, and roles
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOperational readiness requires more than a written plan or stored tools. Exercising current access verifies that responders can reach required systems, testing contacts confirms escalation paths, using tools confirms they function, and rehearsing roles confirms that responsibilities are understood. The exercise exposes practical gaps while there is still time to correct them before an incident.
Question 45
Single choice
An attacker has just gained access to the syslog server on a LAN. Reviewing the syslog entries has allowed the attacker to prioritize possible next targets. Which of the following is this an example of?
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A
Passive network foot printing
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B
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C
Service port identification
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe attacker is learning about internal systems and selecting targets by reading logs that already exist, without sending probes to those systems. Collecting environmental information through observation is passive network footprinting. OS fingerprinting, port identification, and application versioning normally describe specific discoveries and often require direct interaction with targets.
Question 46
Single choice
A security analyst noticed the following entry on a web server log: 1. Warning: fopen (http://127.0.0.1:16) : failed to open stream: 2. Connection refused in /hj/var/www/showimage.php on line 7 Which of the following malicious activities was most likely attempted?
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A
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe application attempts to open a URL pointing to 127.0.0.1, meaning the web server is being induced to make a request to its own loopback interface. Causing a server to fetch an attacker-chosen internal or external destination is server-side request forgery, or SSRF. The refused connection records the attempted server-originated request.
Question 47
Single choice
A SOC analyst is analyzing traffic on a network and notices an unauthorized scan. Which of the following types of activities is being observed?
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A
Potential precursor to an attack
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B
Unauthorized peer-to-peer communication
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C
Rogue device on the network
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn unauthorized scan searches the network for reachable systems, ports, or services. That discovery activity can provide information needed to choose targets and plan later exploitation, so it is a potential precursor to an attack. It does not by itself establish peer-to-peer traffic, a rogue device, or legitimate updating.
Question 48
Single choice
After ransomware propagation is contained, investigators find a stolen administrator token, a scheduled-task foothold, and an unpatched entry point. Which action completes eradication?
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A
Delete only the ransomware executable from the first affected host
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B
Restore user files while keeping the compromised token active for monitoring
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C
Block the original command server and assume all internal footholds are gone
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D
Remove persistence, reset trust, and fix the exploited weakness
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Correct answerD
ExplanationContainment has stopped propagation, but eradication must remove every identified means of continued or renewed compromise. Deleting the scheduled task removes persistence, revoking the stolen administrator token resets compromised trust, and patching the entry point closes the exploited weakness. Addressing only the ransomware file or command server would leave another foothold intact.
Question 49
Single choice
A security analyst is revising a company's MFA policy to prohibit the use of short message service (SMS) tokens. The Chief Information Officer has questioned this decision and asked for justification. Which of the following should the analyst provide as justification for the new policy?
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A
SMS relies on untrusted, third-party carrier networks.
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B
SMS tokens are limited to eight numerical characters.
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C
SMS is not supported on all handheld devices in use.
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D
SMS is a cleartext protocol and does not support encryption.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSMS authentication depends on delivery through a third-party carrier network that the organization does not control. That external trust path creates opportunities for a token to be redirected or intercepted before it reaches the intended user. Removing SMS tokens from the MFA policy eliminates reliance on that untrusted carrier delivery channel.
Question 50
Single choice
During an incident, some IoCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps should be taken next?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPossible ransomware indicators across multiple servers create an immediate risk of continued encryption and spread within the segment. Isolation is the containment step that separates suspected systems from other resources while preserving them for investigation. Remediation or reimaging should follow after the threat is contained and the affected scope is understood.
Question 51
Single choice
A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationApplying the software patch completes the implementation action, so the next step is validation. The technician should confirm that the vulnerability is no longer present and that the server still operates as intended. Testing normally occurs before production implementation, while rollback is a contingency used if the change fails; it is not the routine next step after a successful patch deployment.
Question 52
Single choice
The SFTP server logs show thousands of failed login attempts from hundreds of IP addresses worldwide. Which of the following controls would BEST protect the service?
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A
Whitelisting authorized IP addresses
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B
Blacklisting unauthorized IP addresses
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C
Enforcing more complex password requirements
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D
Establishing a sinkhole service
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Correct answerA
ExplanationWhitelisting permits SFTP connections only from explicitly authorized IP addresses, rejecting the hundreds of worldwide sources before they can attempt authentication. This sharply reduces the exposed attack surface when legitimate client addresses are known. Blacklisting cannot keep pace with distributed and changing sources, while stronger passwords do not stop the login flood itself.
Question 53
Single choice
Testing shows that a web form rejects special characters in the browser. How should server-side input handling be assessed?
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A
Accept the browser behavior as proof that malicious requests cannot reach the server
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B
Disable client-side checks in production and wait for normal users to test the server
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C
Send controlled authorized requests directly and evaluate the server's response safely
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D
Review only the page's visible source because server behavior is fully represented there
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Correct answerC
ExplanationBrowser validation controls normal client behavior, but direct requests can bypass it and reach the server. Controlled, authorized requests test whether server-side handling independently validates or safely processes the same input. Evaluating the server response therefore assesses the actual enforcement boundary while keeping the test limited and deliberate.
Question 54
Single choice
A security analyst is reviewing the following alert that was triggered by FIM on a critical system:  Which of the following best describes the suspicious activity that is occurring?
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A
A fake antivirus program was installed by the user.
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B
A network drive was added to allow exfiltration of data.
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C
A new program has been set to execute on system start.
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D
The host firewall on 192.168.1.10 was disabled.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe added value under the Windows CurrentVersion Run path points to an executable in application data. Entries in this location launch their configured program when the system starts or the user signs in, making the change a persistence mechanism. The other recorded additions concern personalization, a printer, a network drive, and installed software.
Question 55
Single choice
Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety or internal application?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSSO allows a user to authenticate once and use that established identity to access multiple integrated internal applications. The user therefore does not need a different password for every application. MFA strengthens an authentication event, PAM governs privileged access, and a CASB applies controls to cloud service use.
Question 56
Single choice
A SOC team lead wants to automate routine tasks to improve efficiency. Which SOC task is most suitable for automation?
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A
Conducting security assessments of IT systems
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B
Investigating security incidents and determining root causes
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C
Reviewing logs and alerts to identify security threats
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D
Generating incident reports and notifying stakeholders
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReviewing logs and alerts is repetitive, high-volume work with patterns that automation can filter, correlate, and prioritize. Automated analysis can identify indicators of security threats and send notable events to analysts. Root-cause investigations and security assessments require substantially more contextual judgment.
Question 57
Single choice
Passive monitoring has not observed several dormant controllers, but direct probing could disrupt them. What is the best discovery plan?
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A
Treat unobserved controllers as absent from the environment
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B
Combine passive monitoring with authorized low-rate active checks
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C
Use maximum-rate active scanning to minimize the probing duration
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D
Rely only on passive monitoring because it provides complete low-impact coverage
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPassive monitoring discovers devices only when their traffic is observable, so dormant controllers can remain absent from the inventory. Authorized low-rate active checks provide a controlled way to test for those silent devices while reducing the traffic and processing pressure that could disrupt them. Combining both methods preserves low-impact observation and fills the passive coverage gap.
Question 58
Single choice
An organization is concerned about the security posture of vendors with access to its facilities and systems. The organization wants to implement a vendor review process to ensure the policies implemented by vendors are in line with its own. Which of the following will provide the highest assurance of compliance?
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A
An in-house red-team report
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B
A vendor self-assessment report
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C
An independent third-party audit report
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D
Internal and external scans from an approved third-party vulnerability vendor
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn independent third-party audit evaluates the vendor's policies and controls without relying on the vendor's own claims or the organization's internal perspective. Its formal assessment provides the highest assurance that the vendor's practices align with required compliance expectations. Vulnerability scans cover technical weaknesses only, while self-assessments lack independent verification.
Question 59
Single choice
The management team has asked a senior security engineer to explore DLP security solutions for the company's growing use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following is an appropriate solution to control the sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA CASB applies security policy between an organization and its cloud services. It can provide visibility into cloud storage use and enforce controls for sensitive data, making it appropriate for the requested DLP function. NAC controls network admission, an IPS examines traffic for attacks, and a WAF protects web applications.
Question 60
Single choice
During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase?
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A
Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production
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B
Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked
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C
Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow
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D
Implement proper input validation for any data entry form
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Correct answerC
ExplanationApplication security scanning within the CI/CD pipeline tests code repeatedly as changes move through development and delivery. Findings can therefore be detected before release and returned to developers while the relevant change is still being worked. This systematic SDLC control helps prevent recurring vulnerabilities from reaching production, unlike periodic production exercises or a fix aimed at only one vulnerability class.
Question 61
Single choice
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output:  Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationHost03 combines the most consequential conditions: a remote code execution vulnerability, active exploitation, and a high-value target. Remote code execution gives an attacker control beyond a denial-of-service effect, while active exploitation makes remediation urgent. The other hosts lack this same combination of exploit activity, target value, and code-execution capability.
Question 62
Single choice
Before adopting a disaster recovery plan, some team members need to gather in a room to review the written scenarios. Which of the following best describes what the team is doing?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA tabletop exercise is a discussion-based review in which participants work through written disaster scenarios and explain their expected decisions and responsibilities. Gathering in a room for this review does not activate recovery systems or interrupt production, as operational and parallel tests would.
Question 63
Single choice
A security analyst observes a daily traffic spike from the same subnet with a history of DDoS and reconnaissance flags. What should the analyst do first?
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A
Recommend denying all traffic from the subnet via firewall
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B
Continue monitoring as no security concerns were triggered
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C
Review network logs to identify traffic context and actions taken
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D
Check resource consumption for device performance issues
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Correct answerC
ExplanationNetwork logs provide the context needed to determine what generated the recurring spike, which systems were targeted, and what security devices did with the traffic. Reviewing them first separates hostile scanning from legitimate ISP activity before imposing a broad subnet block or attributing the event to resource consumption.
Question 64
Single choice
A vulnerability scan shows the following vulnerabilities in the environment:  At the same time, the following security advisory was released: "A zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 may be affecting your web server. The vendor is working on a patch or workaround." Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
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A
Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
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B
Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
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C
Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.
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D
Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe zero-day advisory should be forwarded promptly to the web security team because that team can assess exposure and apply available protections while the vendor develops a patch or workaround. At the same time, the known workstation, storage-server, and firewall findings still require risk-based prioritization. Shutting down an asset or waiting for every patch is not justified by the available facts.
Question 65
Single choice
A security analyst is testing a web application for vulnerabilities using Burp Suite. During the assessment, a capture of the following HTTP request and response is shown in the command-line interface: After inspecting the request, the security analyst notices that it does not include any additional protections or validation mechanisms.  Which of the following vulnerabilities is most likely present in the web application?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe request changes an account email address using an existing session cookie, but it contains no anti-CSRF token or other request validation. An attacker could cause an authenticated browser to submit the same state-changing request without the user's intent. That missing mechanism supports CSRF rather than an object-reference, database, or script-injection flaw.
Question 66
Single choice
A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReverse engineering examines a compiled malicious binary to determine its internal logic, capabilities, execution flow, and interactions even when source code is unavailable. It can reveal how the malware operates and what indicators or defenses are relevant. Static analysis is one supporting method, but reverse engineering is the broader technique that directly addresses understanding an unknown binary's implementation.
Question 67
Single choice
A security analyst needs to recommend a solution that will allow users at a company to access cloud-based SaaS services but also prevent them from uploading and exfiltrating data. Which of the following solutions should the security analyst recommend?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA cloud access security broker sits between users and cloud-based SaaS services to apply organization-defined access and data policies. It can allow normal service use while inspecting or blocking uploads that would expose protected information. MFA strengthens login verification, a VPN protects transport, and a VPS provides hosting; none supplies equivalent SaaS-specific policy enforcement.
Question 68
Single choice
An analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that win perform adversarial techniques. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. Which of the following teams is the analyst a member of?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationPurple team work coordinates offensive and defensive participants so adversarial techniques can be staged, observed, and used to improve detection. The analyst's recurring interaction with the authorized team performing those techniques reflects this collaborative function. A red team attacks and a blue team defends, while purple integrates their work.
Question 69
Single choice
An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationNetwork and vulnerability scans against external-facing assets gather information about reachable hosts, services, and potential weaknesses before an intrusion is attempted. That information-gathering activity is reconnaissance. Exploitation would involve using a discovered weakness, command and control would establish post-compromise communications, and actions on objectives occur after access is established.
Question 70
Single choice
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company's business type may be able to breach the network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time. Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO's goals?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe goal is to test defenses against the behavior of a specific known threat actor, including initial compromise and extended persistence. Adversary emulation reproduces that actor's tactics and techniques across an attack path so the organization can evaluate whether controls detect and stop them. Scanning and passive discovery identify exposure but do not simulate actor behavior.
Question 71
Single choice
The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company's cybersecurity program. Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMean time to detect measures the average interval between the start of a security threat and its discovery by the organization. A longer value means malicious activity remains unnoticed for more time, while a shorter value indicates faster visibility. Counts of intrusion attempts measure volume, not the duration for which individual threats evade detection.
Question 72
Single choice
A cybersecurity analyst is setting up a security control that monitors network traffic and produces an active response to a security event. Which of the following tools is the analyst configuring?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn IPS monitors network traffic for malicious activity and takes an active preventive action, such as dropping packets or blocking a connection. That combination of inspection and immediate response distinguishes it from controls that only collect endpoint data or govern access to cloud and web applications.
Question 73
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m. ?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn SLA defines measurable service expectations communicated to customers, including availability commitments and planned maintenance windows. Stating that patching occurs only from 2:00 a.m. to 4:00 a.m. establishes such an operational service window. An LOI or MOU expresses intent or understanding, while a KPI measures performance.
Question 74
Single choice
A security analyst needs to identify the devices in a critical infrastructure network that handles an oil and gas pipeline. The network has devices connected over IPv4 using either HTTP or Modbus protocols running on the standard ports. Which of the following approaches should the analyst use to achieve the objective?
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A
Employ the IT vulnerability scanner to target ports 80 and 502.
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B
Use banner grabbing with Netcat on TCP ports 80 and 502.
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C
Perform an Nmap -sS -A -p 80,502 scan.
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D
Scan the ICS network using Masscan --open-only -p80,502.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe objective is focused device identification on an operational network where aggressive discovery can affect sensitive systems. Banner grabbing with Netcat on TCP ports 80 and 502 limits communication to the two stated service ports and can collect identifying service responses. Broad automated scans with service and OS detection or high-speed probing generate more extensive traffic than this targeted approach.
Question 75
Single choice
An IT professional is reviewing the output from the top command in Linux. In this company, only IT and security staff are allowed to have elevated privileges. Both departments have confirmed they are not working on anything that requires elevated privileges. Based on the output below:  Which of the following PIDs is most likely to contribute to data exfiltration?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPID 2264 is a bash process running as root even though authorized IT and security staff report no elevated work. Root access gives that shell broad ability to read protected data and launch commands or transfer tools, making it the process most relevant to possible exfiltration. The other listed processes run as ordinary users or perform expected desktop and remote-session functions.
Question 76
Single choice
An authenticated scan reports no vulnerabilities, but its logs show credential failures on half the servers and no route to another segment. Which conclusion is justified?
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A
Coverage is incomplete; document the gaps, correct access, and reassess.
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B
The environment is vulnerability-free because the scan returned no findings.
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C
Failed credentials affect performance but not configuration-check coverage.
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D
The inaccessible systems can be closed as false positives without evidence.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA scan can support a clean conclusion only for systems and checks it actually reached. Credential failures prevented authenticated inspection on half the servers, while the routing failure omitted another segment entirely. The absence of findings therefore reflects incomplete coverage, so the gaps must be documented, access corrected, and the affected systems reassessed before drawing a vulnerability conclusion.
Question 77
Single choice
An analyst is imaging a hard drive that was obtained from the system of an employee who is suspected of going rogue. The analyst notes that the initial hash of the evidence drive does not match the resultant hash of the imaged copy. Which of the following best describes the reason for the conflicting investigative findings?
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A
Chain of custody was not maintained for the evidence drive.
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B
Legal authorization was not obtained prior to seizing the evidence drive.
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C
Data integrity of the imaged drive could not be verified.
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D
Evidence drive imaging was performed without a write blocker.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA forensic image should be acquired without changing the source drive, and matching hashes demonstrate that the copy preserves the same data. Without a write blocker, the imaging system can write metadata or other changes to the evidence drive during acquisition, causing the hashes to conflict. Chain of custody records handling, but it does not technically prevent writes.
Question 78
Single choice
A security analyst is looking for information that would serve as an indicator that a given IP address is Involved in other attacks. Which of the following sources of information should the analyst use to achieve this objective?
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A
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B
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAbuseIPDB provides reputation information based on reports of abusive activity associated with IP addresses. An analyst can use it to determine whether the address has been observed in other attacks. An Autonomous System Number and Whois describe network ownership or registration, while a sandbox analyzes submitted files or behavior.
Question 79
Single choice
While reviewing a vulnerability assessment, an analyst notices the following issue is identified in the report:  To address this finding, which of the following would be most appropriate for the analyst to recommend to the network engineer?
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A
Reconfigure the device to support only connections leveraging TLSv1.2.
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B
Obtain a new self-signed certificate and select AES as the hashing algorithm.
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C
Replace the existing certificate with a certificate that uses only MDS for signing.
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D
Use only signed certificates with cryptographically secure certificate sources.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe certificate is self-signed and uses SHA-1 with RSA, an insecure signature algorithm. Replacing it with a certificate signed through a cryptographically secure certificate source addresses both trust and signature strength. Merely changing the TLS version does not replace the weak certificate, and another self-signed or weakly signed certificate preserves the underlying problem.
Question 80
Single choice
An end user forwarded an email with a file attachment to the SOC for review. The SOC analysts think the file was specially crafted for the target. Which of the following investigative actions would best determine if the attachment was malicious?
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A
Review the file in Virus Total to determine if the domain is associated with any phishing.
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B
Review the email header to analyze the DKIM, DMARC, and SPF values.
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C
Review the source IP address in AbuseIPDB.
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D
Review the attachment's behavior in a sandbox environment while running Wireshark.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationExecuting the attachment in an isolated sandbox reveals its actual behavior, including file changes, process activity, and attempted communications. Running Wireshark at the same time captures network destinations and protocols generated by the file. Header and reputation checks assess related indicators but not the attachment itself.
Question 81
Single choice
The following output is from a tcpdump al the edge of the corporate network:  Which of the following best describes the potential security concern?
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A
Payload lengths may be used to overflow buffers enabling code execution.
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B
Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses
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C
This traffic exhibits a reconnaissance technique to create network footprints.
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D
The content of the traffic payload may permit VLAN hopping.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe capture identifies IPv6 carried inside another IP packet, indicating encapsulated traffic rather than an ordinary native flow. Encapsulation can conceal the inner traffic from monitoring tools or defenses that inspect only the outer protocol. The zero-length TCP handshake packets do not establish a buffer overflow, VLAN-hopping payload, or reconnaissance pattern.
Question 82
Single choice
A powered-on endpoint may contain volatile evidence of an intrusion. Criminal prosecution is not expected, but the investigation must remain defensible. Which collection approach is best?
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A
Shut down the endpoint first and document the evidence after analysis.
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B
Capture volatile data first; record method, hashes, times, and custody.
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C
Copy selected files without hashes because no court proceeding is planned.
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D
Reimage the endpoint and use the change ticket as the evidence record.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationVolatile evidence can disappear when a powered-on endpoint is shut down, so it must be captured before less time-sensitive data. Recording the collection method, hashes, times, and custody establishes how the evidence was obtained, verifies its integrity, and documents its handling. These safeguards keep the investigation defensible even when criminal prosecution is not anticipated.
Question 83
Single choice
Leadership must decide whether to fund an emergency containment option. Which update is most appropriate?
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A
A chronological export of every alert generated by the SIEM
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B
The business impact, response options, and decision required
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C
A detailed explanation of each malware function and registry change
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D
The response team's raw notes with all unverified theories included
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Correct answerB
ExplanationLeadership needs decision-oriented information rather than raw technical detail. Business impact explains what is at risk, response options present the available containment choices and their consequences, and the decision required makes the funding request explicit. This structure gives leaders enough context to authorize action without forcing them to reconstruct the issue from alerts or analyst notes.
Question 84
Single choice
A SOC manager is establishing a reporting process to manage vulnerabilities. Which of the following would be the best solution to identify potential loss incurred by an issue?
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA risk score expresses the potential effect of a vulnerability by combining factors related to likelihood and impact, including the loss the issue could cause. This gives vulnerability reports a comparable indicator for management decisions. Trends describe change over time, mitigation describes a treatment, and prioritization is the decision made using risk information.
Question 85
Single choice
Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?
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A
A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications
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B
A repository for all the software used by the organization
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C
A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
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D
A configuration management database in print at an off-site location
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Correct answerC
ExplanationBusiness continuity planning begins with leadership's determination of which systems and business functions are critical. A prioritized list defined by executive leadership tells planners what must continue or recover first when resources and time are constrained. Architecture and dependency information can then support recovery design, but it does not establish business priority by itself.
Question 86
Single choice
To confirm whether a user changed a payment destination after signing in, which source provides evidence closest to the claimed action?
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A
Network flow records showing the user's connection to the application
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B
Endpoint antivirus logs from the user's workstation
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C
Application audit records showing the actor and old and new values
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D
Web proxy logs showing access to the application's domain
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Correct answerC
ExplanationApplication audit records operate at the layer where the payment destination is changed. A record containing the actor plus the old and new values can establish who performed the transaction and exactly what field changed. Network flows and proxy logs can prove that a connection or domain access occurred, but they do not establish the business action or its before-and-after values.
Question 87
Single choice
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by an organization after the resolution of an incident that addresses issues and reflects on the growth opportunities for future incidents?
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A
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationLessons learned is the post-incident activity that reviews the response, identifies weaknesses and successful practices, and converts those observations into improvements for future incidents. Root cause analysis can contribute by explaining why an event occurred, but the broader reflection on response issues and growth opportunities is the lessons-learned process.
Question 88
Single choice
Which telemetry source most directly shows whether a word processor spawned a shell and created a startup file during a known time window?
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A
Network flow records that contain source, destination, and byte counts
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B
Identity logs that contain login successes, failures, and session times
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C
Cloud control-plane logs that contain resource administration events
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D
Healthy EDR process and file telemetry retained for the required period
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Correct answerD
ExplanationDetermining whether one process spawned another requires process relationship data, while confirming creation of a startup file requires file activity data. Healthy EDR telemetry supplies both types of endpoint events. Retention for the required period is also essential because otherwise the relevant events from the known time window may no longer be available for reconstruction.
Question 89
Single choice
Security analysts can review the Windows Registry on endpoints to get insights into:
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A
domain account privileges.
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B
mandatory access control zones.
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C
system-critical configuration items.
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D
application and security event logs.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe Windows Registry stores operating-system and application configuration in structured keys and values. Reviewing it can reveal system-critical configuration items, persistence entries, startup behavior, and settings changed during an incident. Event logs are stored and reviewed through logging facilities, while domain privileges are managed through identity services.
Question 90
Single choice
While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems. Which of the following should be checked first?
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A
If appropriate logging levels are set
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B
NTP configuration on each system
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C
Behavioral correlation settings
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCorrelation depends on comparing events along a consistent timeline. If system clocks differ, related records receive incompatible timestamps and the SIEM may fail to associate them with the same incident. Checking NTP configuration on each system first verifies that all event producers share synchronized time before correlation or normalization rules are adjusted.
Question 91
Single choice
An organization wants to reduce the complexity of extending identity and access management to cloud- based assets during SaaS application migration. Which service model is most appropriate?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOpenID extends identity authentication to applications through a federated identity model. A SaaS application can rely on an identity provider instead of maintaining a separate authentication system, reducing IAM complexity during migration. SASE, ZTNA, and SWG address network access or traffic security rather than identity federation.
Question 92
Single choice
Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIncident management handles the operational response after a control fails and a breach occurs, including coordination, containment, remediation, and recovery. Risk assessment evaluates potential exposure before an event, vulnerability management addresses weaknesses, and root cause analysis examines contributing causes after the incident has been stabilized.
Question 93
Single choice
During a routine review of DNS logs, a security analyst observes that Host X has been making frequent DNS requests to domains with random alphanumeric strings (e.g.. atd8ekthj.xyz). IPS anomaly rules are blocking these domains. This behavior started shortly after a new software Installation on the host. Which of the following should the analyst do first to determine whether Host X has been compromised?
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A
Allow the domains because the DNS requests are part of a misconfigured software update.
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B
Check the software installation logs for errors and reinstall the software.
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C
Block all outbound connections from the host to prevent further DNS queries.
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D
Use threat intelligence to check if the queried domains are associated with legitimate sites.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThreat intelligence can determine whether the random-looking domains have known malicious associations or legitimate ownership. That validation is the first step in distinguishing compromise, such as algorithmically generated command-and-control domains, from expected software behavior. Allowing traffic or reinstalling software before validation could remove useful context or increase exposure.
Question 94
Single choice
An incident response team is assessing ransomware attack vectors with no indication of network-based intrusion. What is the most likely root cause?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA USB drop delivers ransomware through removable media and does not require a network-based intrusion. A user can connect an infected device, execute its payload, and introduce the malware directly onto an internal endpoint. LFI, cross-site forgery, and SQL injection are web application attack techniques.
Question 95
Single choice
A security analyst performs forensic analysis of a user's computer. The analyst immediately orders the user to leave the computer powered on and not interact with it until further notice. Which of the following best describes the reason for the analyst's orders?
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A
To prevent loss of sensitive data due to misuse
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B
To preserve artifacts related to the incident
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C
To validate that the security tools are installed and up to date
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D
To ensure there is a legal hold on the computer
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Correct answerB
ExplanationKeeping the computer powered on preserves volatile artifacts such as memory contents, active processes, logged-in sessions, and live network state. Preventing user interaction also limits new writes and state changes that could overwrite relevant information. These instructions support preservation of incident artifacts until the analyst can collect them using an appropriate forensic process.
Question 96
Single choice
An analyst is reviewing a dashboard from the company's SIEM and finds that an IP address known to be malicious can be tracked to numerous high-priority events in the last two hours. The dashboard indicates that these events relate to TTPs. Which of the following is the analyst most likely using?
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A
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B
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C
Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationMITRE ATT&CK organizes observed adversary behavior as tactics, techniques, and procedures. A SIEM dashboard can map related events to those TTPs, allowing the analyst to connect activity associated with the malicious IP address to recognized patterns of attacker behavior.
Question 97
Single choice
A cybersecurity analyst is doing triage in a SIEM and notices that the time stamps between the firewall and the host under investigation are off by 43 minutes. Which of the following is the most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps?
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A
The NTP server is not configured on the host.
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B
The cybersecurity analyst is looking at the wrong information.
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C
The firewall is using UTC time.
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D
The host with the logs is offline.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationReliable event correlation requires the firewall and host to synchronize their clocks to a common time source. If the NTP server is not configured on the host, its clock can drift and create a fixed discrepancy such as 43 minutes. UTC versus local time normally produces an offset in whole hours, and an offline host does not itself explain mismatched recorded times.
Question 98
Lab simulation
Simulation You are a cybersecurity analyst tasked with interpreting scan data from Company As servers You must verify the requirements are being met for all of the servers and recommend changes if you find they are not The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following: 1. TLS 1 2 is the only version of TLS running. 2. Apache 2.4.18 or greater should be used. 3. Only default ports should be used. INSTRUCTIONS using the supplied data. record the status of compliance With the company's guidelines for each server. The question contains two parts: make sure you complete Part 1 and Part 2. Make recommendations for Issues based ONLY on the hardening guidelines provided. Part 1: AppServ1:  AppServ2:  AppServ3:  AppServ4:  Part 2:  
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Part 1:  Part 2: Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server: AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server. AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company's applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services. AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.
Question 99
Single choice
Customer records may have been exposed, triggering a possible notification obligation. Who should decide the external-notification action?
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A
The malware analyst who first confirmed suspicious execution
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B
The system administrator responsible for the affected database
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C
Authorized legal and privacy stakeholders engaged through the escalation path
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D
Any responder who can contact customers before the next status meeting
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Correct answerC
ExplanationExternal notification involves legal duties, privacy consequences, affected-customer considerations, and authorized organizational communication. Legal and privacy stakeholders are responsible for evaluating those factors and making the decision through the defined escalation path. Responders and administrators provide technical facts, but their operational roles do not grant notification authority.
Question 100
Single choice
A systems administrator receives several reports about emails containing phishing links. The hosting domain is always different, but the URL follows a specific pattern of characters. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to find more messages that were not reported?
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A
Search email logs for a regular expression
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B
Open a support ticket with the email hosting provider
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C
Send a memo to all staff asking them to report suspicious emails
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D
Query firewall logs for any traffic with a suspicious website
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe hosting domain changes, so searching for one exact domain would miss related messages. A regular expression can represent the stable character pattern within the URLs while allowing the variable portions to differ. Applying that expression to email logs can locate both reported and unreported matching messages; firewall logs would find visits, not every delivered email.
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