A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites. The technician will define this threat as:
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A
a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
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an advanced persistent threat.
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://www.internetsociety.org/deploy360/tls/basics/
Over the last 90 days, many storage services has been exposed in the cloud services environments, and the security team does not have the ability to see is creating these instance. Shadow IT is creating data services and instances faster than the small security team can keep up with them. The Chief information security Officer (CIASO) has asked the security officer (CISO) has asked the security lead architect to architect to recommend solutions to this problem. Which of the following BEST addresses the problem best address the problem with the least amount of administrative effort?
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A
Compile a list of firewall requests and compare than against interesting cloud services.
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B
Implement a CASB solution and track cloud service use cases for greater visibility.
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C
Implement a user-behavior system to associate user events and cloud service creation events.
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D
Capture all log and feed then to a SIEM and then for cloud service events
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is specifically designed to provide visibility, control, and governance over cloud service usage, including unauthorized or shadow IT activity. It can automatically discover and monitor cloud services with minimal manual effort, making it the most efficient and scalable solution for a small security team facing rapid, untracked cloud instance creation.
A security engineer based in Iceland works in an environment requiring an on-premises and cloud-based storage solution. The solution should take into consideration the following: 1. The company has sensitive data. 2. The company has proprietary data. 3. The company has its headquarters in Iceland, and the data must always reside in that country. Which cloud deployment model should be used?
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Question 4
Multiple choice
A company wants to securely manage the APIs that were developed for its in-house applications. Previous penetration tests revealed that developers were embedding unencrypted passwords in the code. Which of the following can the company do to address this finding? (Choose two.)
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A
Implement complex, key-length API key management.
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B
Implement user session logging.
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C
Implement time-based API key management.
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D
Use SOAP instead of restful services.
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E
Incorporate a DAST into the DevSecOps process to identify the exposure of secrets.
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F
Enforce MFA on the developers' workstations and production systems.
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A security analyst is reviewing the following pseudo-output snippet after running the command less /tmp/ file,tmp.  The information above was obtained from a public-facing website and used to identify military assets. Which of the following should be implemented to reduce the risk of a similar compromise?
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A
Deploy a solution to sanitize geotagging information
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B
Install software to wipe data remnants on servers
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C
Enforce proper input validation on mission-critical software
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D
Implement a digital watermarking solution
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThis would strip GPS coordinates and other sensitive metadata from images or files before uploading them to public-facing websites
Question 6
Multiple choice
A company wants to implement a new website that will be accessible via browsers with no mobile applications available. The new website will allow customers to submit sensitive medical information securely and receive online medical advice. The company already has multiple other websites where it provides various public health data and information. The new website must implement the following: 1. The highest form of web identity validation 2. Encryption of all web transactions 3. The strongest encryption in-transit 4. Logical separation based on data sensitivity Other things that should be considered include: 1. The company operates multiple other websites that use encryption. 2. The company wants to minimize total expenditure. 3. The company wants to minimize complexity. Which of the following should the company implement on its new website? (Choose two.)
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An organization is deploying a container-based application that requires persistence of sensitive information on the filesystem. The filesystem will be deployed into a cloud environment. The information that will persist will include PHI (Protected Health Information). Which of the following solutions would be best to ensure confidentiality of information at rest?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAES-GCM (Advanced Encryption Standard - Galois/Counter Mode)is a symmetric encryption standard that provides bothconfidentialityandintegrity, making it ideal for encrypting sensitive information like PHI at rest in a cloud environment. Triple DESis outdated and less secure compared to modern standards like AES. RSAis an asymmetric encryption standard better suited for encrypting small data (e.g., keys) rather than bulk data like a filesystem. TLSis a protocol for securing data in transit, not at rest. RIPEMDis a cryptographic hash function and does not provide encryption, which is required to ensure confidentiality. References: CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic solutions to protect sensitive data. CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Encryption Standards.
Question 8
Multiple choice
A home automation company just purchased and installed tools for its SOC to enable incident identification and response on software the company develops. The company would like to prioritize defenses against the following attack scenarios: 1. Unauthorized insertions into application development environments 2. Authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations Which of the following actions will enable the data feeds needed to detect these types of attacks on development environments? (Choose two.)
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A
Perform static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports.
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B
Implement an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations.
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C
Monitor dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries.
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D
Install an IDS on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services.
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E
Model user behavior and monitor for deviations from normal.
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F
Continuously monitor code commits to repositories and generate summary logs.
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A security analyst is conducting an investigation regarding a potential insider threat. An unauthorized USB device might have been used to exfiltrate proprietary data from a Linux system. Which of the following options would identify the IoCs and provide the appropriate response?
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A
Review the network logs and update the firewall rules.
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B
Review the operating system logs and update the DLP rules.
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C
Review the vulnerability logs and update the IDS rules.
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D
Obtain the device ID using dmesg and update the portable storage inventory.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationData visibility and endpoint DLP can secure data at-rest and ensure that users do not exfiltrate data via a removable device, such as a USB. The exercise does not specify if the DLP is a network or endpoint based.
Question 10
Single choice
An analyst needs to evaluate all images and documents that are publicly shared on a website. Which of the following would be the best tool to evaluate the metadata of these files?
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D
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Question 11
Single choice
A security engineer performed an assessment on a recently deployed web application. The engineer was able to exfiltrate a company report by visiting the following URL: www.intranet.abc.com/get-files.jsp? file=report.pdf Which of the following mitigation techniques would be BEST for the security engineer to recommend?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationInput validation is the process of checking user input to ensure that it is valid and safe. In this case, the security engineer should recommend that the web application validate the file parameter to ensure that it is a valid "file" path. This will prevent attackers from being able to exfiltrate arbitrary files from the web server.
Question 12
Single choice
A security architect is implementing a web application that uses a database back end. Prior to the production, the architect is concerned about the possibility of XSS attacks and wants to identify security controls that could be put in place to prevent these attacks. Which of the following sources could the architect consult to address this security concern?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard References: https://dzone.com/articles/what-is-oval-a-community-driven-vulnerability-mana
Question 13
Single choice
A security engineer needs to ensure production containers are automatically scanned for vulnerabilities before they are accepted into the production environment. Which of the following should the engineer use to automatically incorporate vulnerability scanning on every commit?
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A
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B
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C
Integrated development environment
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationCI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) automates the testing, including vulnerability scanning, for every code commit before deploying to production. Code repository stores the code but does not handle scanning. Integrated development environment (IDE) aids developers in writing and testing code but does not enforce automated scanning. Container orchestrator manages container deployment but does not directly address pre-production scanning. References: CASP+ Exam Objectives 3.6 ?Integrate automated security tools into the development process.
Question 14
Single choice
During the development process, the team identifies major components that need to be rewritten. As a result, the company hires a security consultant to help address major process issues. Which of the following should the consultant recommend to best prevent these issues from reoccurring in the future?
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A
Implementing a static analysis tool within the CI/CD system
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B
Configuring a dynamic application security testing tool
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C
Performing software composition analysis on all third-party components
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D
Utilizing a risk-based threat modeling approach on new projects
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E
Setting up an interactive application security testing tool
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA risk-based threat modeling approach is the best recommendation to prevent the recurrence of major process issues during the development lifecycle. Threat modeling identifies potential security threats, vulnerabilities, and design flaws early in the development process by focusing on the specific risks posed to the system. By proactively identifying and addressing security concerns before they escalate, the development team can avoid the need for significant rewrites and ensure that security is embedded into the design of new projects. CASP+ emphasizes threat modeling as a critical activity to improve secure development practices. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 Enterprise Security Operations (Threat Modeling and Risk-Based Security Approaches) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Threat Modeling and Secure Development Lifecycle
Question 15
Single choice
Company A is merging with Company B. Company A is a small, local company. Company B has a large, global presence. The two companies have a lot of duplication in their IT systems processes, and procedures. On the new Chief Information Officer's (ClO's) first day, a fire breaks out at Company B's mam data center. Which of the following actions should the CIO take first?
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A
Determine whether the incident response plan has been tested at both companies, and use it to respond
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B
Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies.
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C
Ensure hot. warm, and mobile disaster recovery sites are available, and give an update to the companies' leadership teams
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D
Initiate Company A's IT systems processes and procedures, assess the damage, and perform a BIA
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Correct answerB
ExplanationIn the event of a fire at the main data center, the immediate action should be to review and engage the disaster recovery plan. This is to ensure the continuity of business operations. The CIO should coordinate with IT leaders from both companies to ensure a unified response. Assessing the damage and planning for recovery are crucial, and leveraging the expertise from both companies can help streamline the process.
Question 16
Single choice
A financial institution has several that currently employ the following controls: 1. The severs follow a monthly patching cycle. 2. All changes must go through a change management process. 3. Developers and systems administrators must log into a jumpbox to access the servers hosting the data using two-factor authentication. 4. The servers are on an isolated VLAN and cannot be directly accessed from the internal production network. An outage recently occurred and lasted several days due to an upgrade that circumvented the approval process. Once the security team discovered an unauthorized patch was installed, they were able to resume operations within an hour. Which of the following should the security administrator recommend to reduce the time to resolution if a similar incident occurs in the future?
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A
Require more than one approver for all change management requests.
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B
Implement file integrity monitoring with automated alerts on the servers.
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C
Disable automatic patch update capabilities on the servers
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D
Enhanced audit logging on the jump servers and ship the logs to the SIEM.
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Question 17
Single choice
A security engineer was auditing an organization's current software development practice and discovered that multiple open-source libraries were Integrated into the organization's software. The organization currently performs SAST and DAST on the software it develops. Which of the following should the organization incorporate into the SDLC to ensure the security of the open-source libraries?
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A
Perform additional SAST/DAST on the open-source libraries.
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B
Implement the SDLC security guidelines.
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C
Track the library versions and monitor the CVE website for related vulnerabilities.
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D
Perform unit testing of the open-source libraries.
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Question 18
Single choice
A company is migrating its data center to the cloud. Some hosts had been previously isolated, but a risk assessment convinced the engineering team to reintegrate the systems. Because the systems were isolated, the risk associated with vulnerabilities was low. Which of the following should the security team recommend be performed before migrating these servers to the cloud?
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A
Performing patching and hardening
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B
Deploying host and network IDS
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C
Implementing least functionality and time-based access
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D
Creating a honeypot and adding decoy files
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBefore migrating previously isolated systems to the cloud, it is essential to perform patching and hardening. These systems may have been neglected while isolated, so updating them with the latest security patches and applying hardening measures (such as disabling unnecessary services and implementing strict access controls) is crucial to reduce vulnerabilities. This ensures that the systems are secure before they are exposed to the wider cloud environment. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing systems through patch management and hardening before integrating them into more exposed environments like the cloud. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 Enterprise Security Operations (Patching, Hardening, and Cloud Migration Security) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Securing and Hardening Systems Before Cloud Migration
Question 19
Single choice
A security architect is advising the application team to implement the following controls in the application before it is released: 1. Least privilege 2. Blocklist input validation for the following characters: \<>;, ="#+ Based on the requirements, which of the following attacks is the security architect trying to prevent?
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReferences: https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Quiz-Web-application-threats-and-vulnerabilities
Question 20
Single choice
Which of the following is the best reason to maintain visibility into vendor supply chains?
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A
To circumvent interdiction of shipments by nation-state actors
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B
To prevent clandestine tampering with components in transit
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C
To comply with import/export legal regulations
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D
To ensure the lowest possible price is quoted
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Question 21
Single choice
A security solution uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. Which of the following should the organization do to BEST take advantage of this solution?
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A
Develop an Nmap plug-in to detect the indicator of compromise.
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B
Update the organization's group policy.
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C
Include the signature in the vulnerability scanning tool.
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D
Deliver an updated threat signature throughout the EDR system.
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Question 22
Single choice
An online video shows a company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) making a company announcement. The CEO, however, did not make the announcement. Which of the following BEST describes this attack?
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D
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Question 23
Single choice
A company would like to move its payment card data to a cloud provider. Which of the following solutions will best protect account numbers from unauthorized disclosure?
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A
Storing the data in an encoded file
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B
Implementing database encryption at rest
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C
Only storing tokenized card data
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D
Implementing data field masking
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTokenization is the best solution to protect payment card data from unauthorized disclosure when moving to the cloud. Tokenization replaces sensitive card data with unique identifiers (tokens) that have no exploitable value outside the tokenization system. Even if the data is compromised, the attacker would not obtain actual card numbers. This is in line with PCI DSS requirements for protecting payment card information. Other solutions like encryption at rest or field masking help, but tokenization provides the strongest protection by ensuring that card data is not stored at all. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 Risk Management (Tokenization and PCI DSS Compliance) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Protection Techniques (Tokenization)
Question 24
Multiple choice
A development team created a mobile application that contacts a company's back-end APIs housed in a PaaS environment. The APIs have been experiencing high processor utilization due to scraping activities. The security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will prevent and remedy the behavior. Which of the following would BEST safeguard the APIs? (Choose two.)
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Question 25
Single choice
In comparison to other types of alternative processing sites that may be invoked as a part of disaster recovery, cold sites are different because they:
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A
have basic utility coverage, including power and water.
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B
provide workstations and read-only domain controllers.
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C
are generally the least costly to sustain.
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D
are the quickest way to restore business.
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E
are geographically separated from the company's primary facilities.
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Question 26
Single choice
An organization that develops military technology is considering expansion into a foreign country. The organization's owners want to understand the risks associated with such an expansion, and the organization does not want to fund an intensive assessment. Which of the following approaches should be taken?
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B
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D
Configuration security test
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Question 27
Single choice
A company security engineer arrives at work to face the following scenario: 1. Website defacement 2. Calls from the company president indicating the website needs to be fixed Immediately because It Is damaging the brand 3. A Job offer from the company's competitor 4. A security analyst's investigative report, based on logs from the past six months, describing how lateral movement across the network from various IP addresses originating from a foreign adversary country resulted in exfiltrated data Which of the following threat actors Is MOST likely involved?
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Question 28
Lab simulation
Simulation You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from Company A's privileged network. The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following: 1. There should be one primary server or service per device. 2. Only default ports should be used. 3. Non-secure protocols should be disabled. INSTRUCTIONS Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed. For each device found, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information: 1. The IP address of the device 2. The primary server or service of the device 3. The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines To select multiple protocols, use CTRL+CLICK. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.  
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10.1.45.65 SFTP Server Disable 8080 10.1.45.66 Email Server Disable 415 and 443 10.1.45.67 Web Server Disable 21, 80 10.1.45.68 UTM Appliance Disable 21
Question 29
Single choice
A security analyst detected a malicious PowerShell attack on a single server. The malware used the Invoke-Expression function to execute an external malicious script. The security analyst scanned the disk with an antivirus application and did not find any IOCs. The security analyst now needs to deploy a protection solution against this type of malware. Which of the following BEST describes the type of malware the solution should protect against?
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://www.trendmicro.com/vinfo/us/security/news/cybercrime-and-digital-threats/tracking-detecting-and-thwarting-powershell-based-malware-and-attacks
Question 30
Single choice
The management team at a company with a large, aging server environment is conducting a server risk assessment in order to create a replacement strategy. The replacement strategy will be based upon the likelihood a server will fail, regardless of the criticality of the application running on a particular server. Which of the following should be used to prioritize the server replacements?
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E
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Correct answerD
ExplanationTo prioritize server replacements based on the likelihood of failure, the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) metric is most appropriate. MTBF provides a measure of the average time a server or system is expected to operate before experiencing failure. This allows the management team to assess which servers are more likely to fail soon, irrespective of the application criticality, and thus should be replaced first. CASP+ highlights the use of MTBF in hardware lifecycle management and risk assessments. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 Risk Management (MTBF in Hardware Lifecycle) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Server Risk Assessments Using MTBF and Reliability Metrics
Question 31
Single choice
A security analyst is investigating unapproved cloud services that are being used in the organization. Which of the following would best allow for discovery of shadow IT?
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A
Monitoring for sign-up emails of cloud services
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B
Centralizing WAF deployment in the data center
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C
Setting up a reverse proxy and web filtering software
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D
Performing attack surface analysis
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA reverse proxy and web filtering software can help monitor and control outbound web traffic. By inspecting the traffic, these tools can identify and log connections to cloud services that are not officially sanctioned by the organization. This allows the security analyst to discover and assess unapproved cloud services being accessed by users.
Question 32
Single choice
In a shared responsibility model for PaaS, which of the following is a customer's responsibility?
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D
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Question 33
Single choice
A security analyst is evaluating all third-party software an organization uses. The analyst discovers that each department is violating the organization's policy by provisioning access to SaaS products without oversight from the security group and without using a centralized access control methodology. Which of the following should the organization use to enforce its SaaS product access requirements?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for single sign-on (SSO) that provides centralized authentication and authorization, ensuring SaaS access is governed by organizational policies. SLDAP (Secure LDAP) focuses on directory services but does not centralize SaaS product access. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is unrelated to SaaS authentication. TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System) is more suited for network devices. References: CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.3: Implement authentication and authorization technologies. CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 6, Identity and Access Management.
Question 34
Multiple choice
A mobile device hardware manufacturer receives the following requirements from a company that wants to produce and sell a new mobile platform: 1. The platform should store biometric data. 2. The platform should prevent unapproved firmware from being loaded. 3. A tamper-resistant, hardware-based counter should track if unapproved firmware was loaded. Which of the following should the hardware manufacturer implement? (Select three).
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D
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E
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F
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G
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H
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Correct answersC, F, H
ExplanationTo meet the mobile platform security requirements, the manufacturer should implement the following technologies: eFuse: This hardware feature helps track and prevent unauthorized firmware by physically "blowing" fuses to record events, such as firmware tampering, making it impossible to revert to older, unapproved firmware. Secure boot: This ensures that only trusted and authorized firmware can be loaded during the boot process, preventing malicious or unauthorized software from running. Secure enclave: A secure enclave is used to store sensitive information like biometric data in a hardware-isolated environment, protecting it from tampering or unauthorized access. These three solutions provide the tamper resistance, secure firmware validation, and protection of sensitive data required for the platform. CASP+ emphasizes the use of hardware-based security features for protecting sensitive information and enforcing secure boot processes in embedded and mobile systems. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 Enterprise Security Architecture (Secure Hardware and Firmware Protection) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Hardware Security Features (eFuse, Secure Boot, Secure Enclave)
Question 35
Single choice
A company has instituted a new policy in which all outbound traffic must go over TCP ports 80 and 443 for all its managed mobile devices. No other IP traffic is allowed to be initiated from a device. Which of the following should the organization consider implementing to ensure internet access continues without interruption?
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D
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Question 36
Single choice
A cyberanalyst has been tasked with recovering PDF files from a provided image file. Which of the following is the BEST file-carving tool for PDF recovery?
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D
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Correct answerD
Explanation"Foremost is a digital forensic application that is used to recover lost or deleted files. Foremost can recover the files for hard disk, memory card, pen drive, and another mode of memory devices easily. It can also work on the image files that are being generated by any other Application." https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/how-to-recover-deleted-files-using-foremost-in-linux/ dd is a command-line utility for Unix and Unix-like operating systems whose primary purpose is to convert and copy files. The main purpose of the objdump command is to help in debugging the object file. In computer software, Strings is a program in Unix, Plan 9, Inferno, and Unix-like operating systems that finds and prints the strings of printable characters in files.
Question 37
Single choice
A disaster recovery team learned of several mistakes that were made during the last disaster recovery parallel test. Computational resources ran out at 70% of restoration of critical services. Which of the following should be modified to prevent the issue from reoccurring?
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A
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B
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C
Mission-essential functions
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReferences: https://www.nakivo.com/blog/disaster-recovery-in-cloud-computing/
Question 38
Single choice
An internal user can send encrypted emails successfully to all recipients, except one. at an external organization. When the internal user attempts to send encrypted emails to this external recipient, a security error message appears. The issue does not affect unencrypted emails. The external recipient can send encrypted emails to internal users. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
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A
The validity dates of the external recipient's private key do not match the SSH keys with which the internal user is accessing the system.
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B
The external recipient has an expired public/private key pair that has not been revoked by the CA.
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C
The internal user's company email servers have an incorrect implementation of OCSP and CRL settings.
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D
The external recipient's email address and the email address associated with the external recipient's public key are mismatched.
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Question 39
Single choice
A security engineer at a manufacturing facility is trying to determine whether any of the OT devices are susceptible to a recently announced vulnerability. Which of the following is the best way for the engineer to detect exploitable vulnerabilities?
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A
Utilize a passive vulnerability scanner on the network.
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B
Compare deployed equipment to the CVE disclosure.
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C
Perform threat hunting on the OT segment.
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D
Review software inventory for vulnerable versions.
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Question 40
Single choice
An IT department is currently working to implement an enterprise DLP solution. Due diligence and best practices must be followed in regard to mitigating risk. Which of the following ensures that authorized modifications are well planned and executed?
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B
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationChange management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization's goals, processes, or technologies. In the context of implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution and ensuring that authorized modifications are well-planned and executed, change management is critical. It ensures that changes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner to minimize the impact on service quality and mitigate risks associated with the changes.
Question 41
Single choice
A security is testing a server finds the following in the output of a vulnerability scan:  Which of the following will the security analyst most likely use NEXT to explore this further?
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A
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B
Reverse engineering tools
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C
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D
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Question 42
Single choice
A user logged in to a web application. Later, a SOC analyst noticed the user logged in to systems after normal business hours. The end user confirms the log-ins after hours were unauthorized. Following an investigation, the SOC analyst determined that the web server was running an outdated version of OpenSSL. No other suspicious user log-ins were found. Which of the following describes what happened and how to fix it?
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A
A downgrade attack occurred. Any use of old, outdated software should be disallowed.
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B
The attacker obtained the systems' private keys. New key pairs must be generated.
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C
Malware is present on the client machine. A full OS needs to be reinstalled.
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D
The user fell for a phishing attack. The end user must attend security training.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA downgrade attack likely exploited the outdated OpenSSL version, allowing the attacker to bypass secure encryption and impersonate the user. Upgrading to a secure version of OpenSSL and disabling older versions is critical. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, emphasizing the importance of securing cryptographic implementations.
Question 43
Single choice
A new web server must comply with new secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. This includes mitigating the risk of an on-path attack. A security analyst is reviewing the following web server configuration:  Which of the following ciphers should the security analyst remove to support the business requirements?
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A
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B
TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
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C
TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
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D
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Question 44
Single choice
A cybersecurity analyst created the following tables to help determine the maximum budget amount the business can justify spending on an improved email filtering system:   Which of the following meets the budget needs of the business?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 45
Single choice
A systems administrator is in the process of hardening the host systems before connecting to the network. The administrator wants to add protection to the boot loader to ensure the hosts are secure before the OS fully boots. Which of the following would provide the BEST boot loader protection?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReferences: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-898217D4-689D-4EB5-866C-888353FE241C.html
Question 46
Single choice
A satellite communications ISP frequently experiences outages and degraded modes of operation over one of its legacy satellite links due to the use of deprecated hardware and software. Three days per week, on average, a contracted company must follow a checklist of 16 different high-latency commands that must be run in serial to restore nominal performance. The ISP wants this process to be automated. Which of the following techniques would be BEST suited for this requirement?
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A
Deploy SOAR utilities and runbooks.
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B
Replace the associated hardware.
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C
Provide the contractors with direct access to satellite telemetry data.
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D
Reduce link latency on the affected ground and satellite segments.
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Question 47
Single choice
A systems engineer is reviewing output from a web application vulnerability scan. The engineer has determined data is entenng the application from an untrusted source and is being used to construct a query dynamically. Which of the following code snippets would BEST protect the application against an SQL injection attack?
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A
String input = request.getParameter ("SeqNo"); String characterPattern = "[0-9a0zA-Z] If (! input. Matches (characterPattern)) { out.println ("Invalid Input"); }
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B
Cinput type= "text" maxlength= "30" name= "ecsChangePwdForm" size= "40" readonly= "true" value= '<%=ESAPI.encoder().encodeForHTML (request.getParameter("userName")) %>'/>
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C
catch (Exception e) { if (log.isDebugEnabled()) log.debug (context, EVENTS.ADHOC, "Caught InvalidGSMException Exception --" + e.toString() ); }
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D
<asp:TextBox Tablndex= "6" runat= "server" Width= "206px" MaxLength= "11" TextMode= "Password"X/asp:TextBox>
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Question 48
Single choice
A company is designing a new system that must have high security. This new system has the following requirements: 1. Permissions must be assigned based on role. 2. Fraud from a single person must be prevented. 3. A single entity must not have full access control. Which of the following can the company use to meet these requirements?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 49
Single choice
A SOC analyst is reviewing malicious activity on an external, exposed web server. During the investigation, the analyst determines specific traffic is not being logged, and there is no visibility from the WAF for the web application. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
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A
The user agent client is not compatible with the WAF.
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B
A certificate on the WAF is expired.
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C
HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt.
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D
Old, vulnerable cipher suites are still being used.
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Correct answerC
Explanation References: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/waf-block-http-requests-no-user-agent/
Question 50
Single choice
After a cybersecurity incident, a judge found that a company did not conduct a proper forensic investigation. The company was ordered to pay penalties. Which of the following forensic steps would be best to prevent this from happening again?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationProper forensic investigation requires that evidence is preserved in a manner that maintains its integrity and reliability. To prevent legal issues such as penalties for not conducting a proper forensic investigation, the first and most crucial step is to ensure that evidence is preserved so that it can be verified, collected, and analyzed correctly. This involves making sure that the evidence is not tampered with or altered from the time it is identified until it is presented in a legal proceeding.
Question 51
Single choice
A customer requires secure communication of subscribed web services at all times, but the company currently signs its own certificate requests to an internal CA. Which of the following approaches will best meet the customer's requirements?
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A
Generate a CSR to the local CA for email encryption.
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B
Submit a CSR for a wildcard certificate to a public CA.
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C
Request a software signing certificate from a public CA.
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D
Process a CSR for a server authentication certificate.
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Correct answerD
ExplanationServer authentication certificates are used to secure web communication (e.g., HTTPS). Submitting a CSR (Certificate Signing Request) for a server authentication certificate ensures the web services can securely establish encrypted communication. Other options, such as email encryption or software signing, do not apply in this scenario. References: CASP+ Exam Objectives 2.3 ?Apply cryptographic techniques to secure communications.
Question 52
Single choice
A review of the past year's attack patterns shows that attackers stopped reconnaissance after finding a susceptible system to compromise. The company would like to find a way to use this information to protect the environment while still gaining valuable attack information. Which of the following would be BEST for the company to implement?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReferences: https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/what-is-a-honeypot
Question 53
Single choice
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements: 1. Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats. 2. Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation. 3. Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly. 4. Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques. Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 54
Single choice
A recent audit discovered that multiple employees had been using their badges to walk through the secured data center to get to the employee break room. Most of the employees were given access during a previous project, but the access was not removed in a timely manner when the project was complete. Which of the following would reduce the likelihood of this scenario occurring again?
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A
Create an automated quarterly attestation process that requires management approval for data center access and removes unapproved access.
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B
Require all employees to sign an AUP that prohibits accessing the data center without an active service ticket number.
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C
Remove all access to the data center badge readers and only re-add employees with a valid business purpose for entering the floor.
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D
Implement time-of-day restrictions on the data center badge readers and create automated alerts for unapproved swipe attempts.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationImplementing an automated quarterly attestation process ensures that access is reviewed and approved regularly. This prevents unauthorized or unnecessary access from persisting over time, aligning with CASP + objective 1.6, which emphasizes continuous access control monitoring.
Question 55
Single choice
A high-severity vulnerability was found on a web application and introduced to the enterprise. The vulnerability could allow an unauthorized user to utilize an open-source library to view privileged user information. The enterprise is unwilling to accept the risk, but the developers cannot fix the issue right away. Which of the following should be implemented to reduce the risk to an acceptable level until the issue can be fixed?
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A
Scan the code with a static code analyzer, change privileged user passwords, and provide security training.
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B
Change privileged usernames, review the OS logs, and deploy hardware tokens.
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C
Implement MFA, review the application logs, and deploy a WAF.
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D
Deploy a VPN, configure an official open-source library repository, and perform a full application review for vulnerabilities.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://www.microfocus.com/en-us/what-is/sast
Question 56
Multiple choice
A development team needs terminal access to preproduction servers to verify settings and enter purchased license keys. To address the team's needs, the security administrator implements the following requirements: 1. Only trusted accounts can access the preproduction servers. 2. Developers cannot access the preproduction servers directly from their workstations. 3. The trusted accounts should only have access to specific preproduction servers. Which of the following are necessary to fulfill the security requirements? (Select two).
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
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Correct answersE, F
ExplanationJump box: Acts as an intermediary that allows secure access to preproduction servers while enforcing access controls. Network ACLs: Restrict access to only trusted accounts and specified preproduction servers. This aligns with CASP+ objectives 2.2 and 3.4, which focus on securing access and implementing appropriate controls for sensitive environments.
Question 57
Single choice
The general counsel at an organization has received written notice of upcoming litigation. The general counsel has issued a legal records hold. Which of the following actions should the organization take to comply with the request?
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A
Preserve all communication matching the requested search terms
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B
Block communication with the customer while litigation is ongoing
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C
Require employees to be trained on legal record holds
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D
Request that all users do not delete any files
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Correct answerA
ExplanationWhen a legal records hold is issued, the organization is required to preserve all documents and communications that may relate to the litigation. This includes emails, files, and any other form of communication that contains the requested search terms. It is a process of ensuring that this information is not deleted, altered, or otherwise tampered with.
Question 58
Single choice
A security team is concerned with attacks that are taking advantage of return-oriented programming against the company's public facing applications. Which of the following should the company implement on the public-facing servers?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAccording to Intel, the answer is ASLR (B). "Areas of strength for ROP attacks includes the ability to circumvent data execution prevention (NX)"... meaning C is not the correct answer. See page 8 at link below. "Existing solutions to ROP attacks include Address Space Layout Randomization: ASLR is the state-of-the-art protection against ROP attacks." See page 9 at link below. https://www.intel.com/content/dam/develop/external/us/en/documents/catc17-anti-rop-moving-target-defense-844137.pdf
Question 59
Single choice
A pharmaceutical company uses a cloud provider to host thousands of independent resources in object storage. The company needs a practical and effective means of discovering data, monitoring changes, and identifying suspicious activity. Which of the following would best meet these requirements?
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A
A machine-learning-based data security service
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B
A file integrity monitoring service
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C
A cloud configuration assessment and compliance service
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D
An automated data classification system
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Question 60
Single choice
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to implement a cloud solution that will satisfy the following requirements: 1. Support all phases of the SDLC. 2. Use tailored website portal software. 3. Allow the company to build and use its own gateway software. 4. Utilize its own data management platform. 5. Continue using agent-based security tools. Which of the following cloud-computing models should the CIO implement?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationInfrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the most flexibility and control, allowing the company to: 1. Support the full Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) 2. Use custom portal software 3. Build and deploy its own gateway and data management platforms 4. Continue using agent-based security tools, which typically require deeper system-level access IaaS delivers compute, storage, and networking resources, making it the only model that meets all the specified requirements.
Question 61
Single choice
A company recently experienced a period of rapid growth, and it now needs to move to a more scalable cloud-based solution. Historically, salespeople have maintained separate systems for information on competing customers to prevent the inadvertent disclosure of one customer's information to another customer. Which of the following would be the BEST method to provide secure data separation?
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A
Use a CRM tool to separate data stores
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B
Migrate to a single-tenancy cloud infrastructure.
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C
Employ network segmentation to provide isolation among salespeople
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D
Implement an open-source public cloud CRM
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Question 62
Single choice
A network engineer is concerned about hosting web, SFTP. and email services in a single DMZ that is hosted in the same security zone This could potentially allow lateral movement within the environment. Which of the following should the engineer implement to mitigate the risk?
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A
Put all the services on a single host to reduce the number of servers.
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B
Create separate security zones for each service and use ACLs for segmentation.
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C
Keep the web server in the DMZ and move the other server services to the internal network.
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D
Deploy a switch and create VLANs for each service.
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Question 63
Single choice
The Chief information Officer (CIO) asks the system administrator to improve email security at the company based on the following requirements: 1. Transaction being requested by unauthorized individuals. 2. Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and investment information. 3. Malicious attackers using email to malware and ransomeware. 4. Exfiltration of sensitive company information. The cloud-based email solution will provide anti-malware reputation-based scanning, signature-based scanning, and sandboxing. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the boar's concerns for this email migration?
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A
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B
Endpoint detection response
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C
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D
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Question 64
Single choice
A security engineer investigates an incident and determines that a rogue device is on the network. Further investigation finds that an employee's personal device has been set up to access company resources and does not comply with standard security controls. Which of the following should the security engineer recommend to reduce the risk of future reoccurrence?
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A
Require device certificates to access company resources.
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B
Enable MFA at the organization's SSO portal.
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C
Encrypt all workstation hard drives.
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D
Hide the company wireless SSID.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationTo reduce the risk of unauthorized devices accessing company resources, requiring device certificates is an effective control. Device certificates can be used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to the network and access resources, ensuring that only devices with a valid certificate, which are typically managed and issued by the organization, can connect.
Question 65
Single choice
A security administrator at a global organization wants to update password complexity rules for a system containing personally identifiable information. Which of the following would be the best resource for this information?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationNIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology): Provides comprehensive password guidelines (e.g., SP 800-63B) widely used for securing systems, including handling PII. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): Focuses on data privacy laws rather than technical password policies. CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration): Addresses process improvement, not password complexity. COPPA (Children's Online Privacy Protection Act): Focuses on child data privacy, not password rules. References: CASP+ Exam Objectives 5.3 ?Implement security controls and best practices using NIST standards.
Question 66
Single choice
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident. Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
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A
An on-premises solution as a backup
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B
A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
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C
A multicloud provider solution
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D
An active-active solution within the same tenant
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAn active-active cluster does nothing if the cloud provider goes down. One of the main features of multi-cloud is redundancy. https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cloud/what-is-multicloud/
Question 67
Lab simulation
Simulation As a security administrator, you are asked to harden a server running Red Hat Enterprise Server 5.5 64- bit. This server is being used as a DNS and time server. It is not used as a database, web server, or print server. There are no wireless connections to the server, and it does not need to print. The command window will be provided along with root access. You are connected via a secure shell with root access. You may query help for a list of commands. Instructions: You need to disable and turn off unrelated services and processes. It is possible to simulate a crash of your server session. The simulation can be reset, but the server cannot be rebooted. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
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Question 68
Single choice
A company processes data subject to NDAs with partners that define the processing and storage constraints for the covered data. The agreements currently do not permit moving the covered data to the cloud, and the company would like to renegotiate the terms of the agreements. Which of the following would MOST likely help the company gain consensus to move the data to the cloud?
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A
Designing data protection schemes to mitigate the risk of loss due to multitenancy
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B
Implementing redundant stores and services across diverse CSPs for high availability
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C
Emulating OS and hardware architectures to blur operations from CSP view
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D
Purchasing managed FIM services to alert on detected modifications to covered data
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Question 69
Single choice
All staff at a company have started working remotely due to a global pandemic. To transition to remote work, the company has migrated to SaaS collaboration tools. The human resources department wants to use these tools to process sensitive information but is concerned the data could be: 1. Leaked to the media via printing of the documents 2. Sent to a personal email address 3. Accessed and viewed by systems administrators 4. Uploaded to a file storage site Which of the following would mitigate the department's concerns?
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A
Data loss detection, reverse proxy, EDR, and PGP
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B
VDI, proxy, CASB, and DRM
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C
Watermarking, forward proxy, DLP, and MFA
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D
Proxy, secure VPN, endpoint encryption, and AV
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Question 70
Multiple choice
An organization is establishing a new software assurance program to vet applications before they are introduced into the production environment, Unfortunately. many Of the applications are provided only as compiled binaries. Which Of the following should the organization use to analyze these applications? (Select TWO).
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A
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B
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C
Third-party dependency management
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D
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E
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F
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Question 71
Single choice
A security administrator is confirming specific ports and IP addresses that are monitored by the IPS-IDS system as well as the firewall placement on the perimeter network between the company and a new business partner Which of the following business documents defines the parameters the security administrator must confirm?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationISA (Interconnection Security Agreement): An ISA is a formal agreement between two organizations that details how they will securely connect and exchange information.
Question 72
Single choice
A security administrator configured the account policies per security implementation guidelines. However, the accounts still appear to be susceptible to brute-force attacks. The following settings meet the existing compliance guidelines: 1. Must have a minimum of 15 characters 2. Must use one number 3. Must use one capital letter 4. Must not be one of the last 12 passwords used Which of the following policies should be added to provide additional security?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/ account-lockout-threshold
Question 73
Single choice
A security analyst for a managed service provider wants to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies to provide clients with the best offerings. Which of the following resources would the analyst MOST likely adopt?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Question 74
Single choice
A security analyst received a report that a suspicious flash drive was picked up in the office's waiting area, located beyond the secured door. The analyst investigated the drive and found malware designed to harvest and transmit credentials. Security cameras in the area where the flash drive was discovered showed a vendor representative dropping the drive. Which of the following should the analyst recommend as an additional way to identify anyone who enters the building, in the event the camera system fails?
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A
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B
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C
Vehicle registration logs
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationVisitor logs would be the best additional method for identifying individuals who enter the building in the event of a camera system failure. Visitor logs track who enters and exits a secured facility, providing a record that can be cross-referenced with security events, like the discovery of a suspicious flash drive. In this case, reviewing the visitor logs could help identify the vendor representative who dropped the flash drive. CASP+ highlights the importance of physical security measures, such as logging and auditing access to facilities, to complement digital security controls. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 Enterprise Security Operations (Physical Security and Access Control Logs) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Physical Security and Incident Response Procedures
Question 75
Single choice
A technician accidentally deleted the secret key that was corresponding to the public key pinned to a busy online magazine. To remedy the situation, the technician obtained a new certificate with a different key. However, paying subscribers were locked out of the website until the key-pinning policy expired. Which of the following alternatives should the technician adopt to prevent a similar issue in the future?
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A
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B
Certificate revocation list
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C
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D
Certificate authority authorization
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCertificate Authority Authorization (CAA) is not listed directly in the provided options, but it is a relevant mechanism in the context of managing certificates and preventing issues similar to the one described. However, based on the available choices, the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) comes closest to providing a viable solution. OCSP allows for real-time validation of a certificate's revocation status, which could mitigate the issue of users being locked out due to key pinning policies. It is a more modern and efficient alternative to Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), offering faster and more reliable certificate status checks. By implementing OCSP, the technician could ensure that clients receive timely updates on the revocation status of certificates, potentially avoiding the downtime caused by the key-pinning policy awaiting expiration.
Question 76
Single choice
A security analyst is reviewing network connectivity on a Linux workstation and examining the active TCP connections using the command line. Which of the following commands would be the BEST to run to view only active Internet connections?
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A
sudo netstat -antu | grep "LISTEN" | awk `{print$5}'
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B
sudo netstat -nlt -p | grep "ESTABLISHED"
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C
sudo netstat -plntu | grep -v "Foreign Address"
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D
sudo netstat -pnut -w | column -t -s $'\w'
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E
sudo netstat -pnut | grep -P ^tcp
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Correct answerE
ExplanationReferences: https://www.codegrepper.com/code-examples/shell/netstat+find+port
Question 77
Single choice
An organization is looking to establish more robust security measures by implementing PKI. Which of the following should the security analyst implement when considering mutual authentication?
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A
Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints
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B
Shared secret for both endpoints
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C
Public keys on both endpoints
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D
A common public key on each endpoint
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E
A common private key on each endpoint
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Question 78
Single choice
During a review of events, a security analyst notes that several log entries from the FIM system identify changes to firewall rule sets. While coordinating a response to the FIM entries, the analyst receives alerts from the DLP system that indicate an employee is sending sensitive data to an external email address. Which of the following would be the most relevant to review in order to gain a better understanding of whether these events are associated with an attack?
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A
Configuration management tool
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B
Intrusion prevention system
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C
Mobile device management platform
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D
Firewall access control list
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E
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Correct answerE
ExplanationNetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.
Question 79
Single choice
A company has identified a number of vulnerable, end-of-support systems with limited defensive capabilities. Which of the following would be the first step in reducing the attack surface in this environment?
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A
Utilizing hardening recommendations
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B
Deploying IPS/IDS throughout the environment
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C
Installing and updating antivirus
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D
Installing all available patches
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe first step in reducing the attack surface of vulnerable, end-of-support systems is to apply hardening recommendations. Hardening involves applying security configurations, such as disabling unnecessary services, enforcing strong authentication, and tightening access controls to mitigate vulnerabilities on systems that can no longer receive patches or support. While patching and deploying security tools like IPS/IDS and antivirus are important, hardening addresses the fundamental weakness of these legacy systems by reducing their exposure to threats. CASP+ recommends hardening as a crucial measure in environments where patching or upgrading may not be feasible, particularly for unsupported systems. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 Enterprise Security Operations (System Hardening) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: System Hardening for End-of-Life Systems
Question 80
Single choice
As part of the customer registration process to access a new bank account, customers are required to upload a number of documents, including their passports and driver's licenses. The process also requires customers to take a current photo of themselves to be compared against provided documentation. Which of the following BEST describes this process?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationReferences: https://auth0.com/blog/what-is-identity-proofing-and-why-does-it-matter/
Question 81
Single choice
A security technician is trying to connect a remote site to the central office over a site-to-site VPN. The technician has verified the source and destination IP addresses are correct, but the technician is unable to get the remote site to connect. The following error message keeps repeating: An error has occurred during Phase 1 handshake. Deleting keys and retrying... Which of the following is most likely the reason the connection is failing?
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A
The IKE hashing algorithm uses different key lengths on each VPN device.
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B
The IPSec settings allow more than one cipher suite on both devices.
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C
The Diffie-Hellman group on both sides matches but is a legacy group.
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D
The remote VPN is attempting to connect with a protocol other than SSL/TLS.
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Question 82
Single choice
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements: Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats. Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation. Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly. Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques. Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities?
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A
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B
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C
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D
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDeception software is a technology that creates realistic but fake assets (such as servers, applications, data, etc.) that mimic the real environment and lure attackers into interacting with them. By doing so, deception software can help detect advanced persistent threats (APTs) that may otherwise evade traditional security tools 12. Deception software can also provide valuable insights into the attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) by capturing their actions and behaviors on the decoys 13. Deception software can meet the customer's requirements for security capabilities because: It is capable of early detection of APTs by creating attractive targets for them and alerting security teams when they are engaged 12. It is transparent to users and causes no performance degradation because it does not interfere with legitimate traffic or resources 13. It allows integration with production and development networks seamlessly because it can create decoys that match the network topology and configuration 13. It enables the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques because it can record and analyze the attacker's activities on the decoys 13.
Question 83
Single choice
A security analyst notices a number of SIEM events that show the following activity:  Which of the following response actions should the analyst take FIRST?
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A
Disable powershell.exe on all Microsoft Windows endpoints.
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B
Restart Microsoft Windows Defender.
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C
Configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154.
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D
Disable local administrator privileges on the endpoints.
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Correct answerC
Explanationtop the data exfiltration and sever all malicious traffic first, and then clean up the internal mess.
Question 84
Single choice
While traveling to another state, the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) forgot to submit payroll for the company The CFO quickly gained access to the corporate network through the high-speed wireless network provided by the hotel and completed the task. Upon returning from the business trip, the CFO was told no one received their weekly pay due to a malware attack on the system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the secunty breach?
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A
The security manager did not enforce automatic VPN connection.
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B
The company's server did not have endpoint security enabled.
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C
The hotel did not require a wireless password to authenticate.
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D
The laptop did not have the host-based firewall properly configured.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe most likely cause of the breach is that the CFO accessed the corporate network over an untrusted hotel Wi-Fi without using a secured VPN tunnel. Without enforced VPN usage, sensitive data and credentials may have been exposed to man-in-the-middle attacks, leading to a malware infection or credential compromise. While host-based firewalls and endpoint security are important, the root cause here is likely the lack of secure communication over a public network.
Question 85
Single choice
An information security officer reviews a report and notices a steady increase in outbound network traffic over the past ten months. There is no clear explanation for the increase. The security officer interviews several business units and discovers an unsanctioned cloud storage provider was used to share marketing materials with potential customers. Which of the following services would be BEST for the security officer to recommend to the company?
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Question 86
Single choice
A security analyst is reading the results of a successful exploit that was recently conducted by third-party penetration testers. The testers reverse engineered a privileged executable. In the report, the planning and execution of the exploit is detailed using logs and outputs from the test However, the attack vector of the exploit is missing, making it harder to recommend remediation's. Given the following output:  The penetration testers MOST likely took advantage of:
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A plain-text password disclosure
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An integer overflow vulnerability
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A buffer overflow vulnerability
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Question 87
Single choice
A company recently deployed a SIEM and began importing logs from a firewall, a file server, a domain controller, a web server, and a laptop. A security analyst receives a series of SIEM alerts and prepares to respond. The following is the alert information:  Which of the following should the security analyst do FIRST?
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Disable Administrator on abc-usa-fs1; the local account is compromised.
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Shut down the abc-usa-fs1 server; a plaintext credential is being used.
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Disable the jdoe account; it is likely compromised.
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Shut down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMultiple successful logon events involving the "jdoe" account across different systems within a short time frame indicate potential suspicious behavior. This repeated successful logon activity, especially across different servers (abc-usa-fs1, abc-ger-fs1, abc-web01), raises suspicions of a compromised account or potentially unauthorized access.
Question 88
Single choice
An internal security audit determines that Telnet is currently being used within the environment to manage network switches. Which of the following tools should be utilized to identify credentials in plaintext that are used to log in to these devices?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA network traffic analyzer (also known as a packet sniffer or protocol analyzer) captures and inspects the data packets traveling over the network. Since Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, a network traffic analyzer can be used to capture the packets containing the login credentials as they are sent over the network. Tools like Wireshark are commonly used for this purpose and can help identify and analyze the plaintext credentials.
Question 89
Single choice
A company's finance department acquired a new payment system that exports data to an unencrypted file on the system. The company implemented controls on the file so only appropriate personnel are allowed access. Which of the following risk techniques did the department use in this situation?
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Question 90
Single choice
A company Is adopting a new artificial-intelligence-based analytics SaaS solution. This Is the company's first attempt at using a SaaS solution, and a security architect has been asked to determine any future risks. Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk In adopting this solution?
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The inability to assign access controls to comply with company policy
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The inability to require the service provider process data in a specific country
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The inability to obtain company data when migrating to another service
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The inability to conduct security assessments against a service provider
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Question 91
Single choice
A security analyst is reviewing SIEM events and is uncertain how to handle a particular event. The file is reviewed with the security vendor who is aware that this type of file routinely triggers this alert. Based on this information, the security analyst acknowledges this alert. Which of the following event classifications is MOST likely the reason for this action?
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Question 92
Single choice
Which of the following best describes a risk associated with using facial recognition to locally authenticate to a mobile device?
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Question 93
Single choice
A company recently deployed new servers to create an additional cluster to support a new application. The corporate security policy states that all new servers must be resilient. The new cluster has a high-availability configuration for a smooth failover. The failover was successful following a recent power outage, but both clusters lost critical data, which impacted recovery time. Which of the following needs to be configured to help ensure minimal delays when power outages occur in the future?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBased on the requirement to reduce delays during power outages and the scenario's description of data loss despite high availability, configuring replication (option A) is crucial. Replication ensures that critical data is duplicated across clusters, allowing seamless failover and access to data from alternative locations in the event of server failures or power outages. This approach directly addresses the need for data resilience and continuity, ensuring minimal impact on operations during unforeseen disruptions. Thus, replication is the most suitable solution to enhance the company's data resilience and reduce recovery times during power outages.
Question 94
Single choice
After establishing coding standards and integrating software assurance tools into CI/CD pipelines, an architect continues to find too many different coding styles throughout the team. Which of the following additional measures can the architect take to help improve consistency?
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Establish a chain of custody to govern code quality.
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Create and proliferate framework code.
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Require two-person integrity for code commits.
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Enhance the monitoring of code coverage for unit testing.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationFramework code provides a standardized structure and set of conventions that all team members can follow, ensuring consistency in coding styles across the development team. Option A (Chain of custody): This relates to tracking and managing code changes for accountability, not standardizing coding styles. Option C (Two-person integrity): Ensures review and approval for code changes but does not enforce uniform coding styles. Option D (Code coverage for unit testing): Focuses on test quality rather than addressing inconsistent coding styles. References: CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 3.3: Apply software development security best practices. CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 8, Secure Software Development.
Question 95
Single choice
A company hired a third-party consultant to run a cybersecurity incident simu-lation in order to identify security gaps and prepare stakeholders for a potential incident. Which of the following best describes this activity?
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Question 96
Single choice
A company has decided to purchase a license for software that is used to operate a mission-critical process. The third-party developer is new to the industry but is delivering what the company needs at this time. Which of the following BEST describes the reason why utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application?
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The company will have access to the latest version to continue development.
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The company will be able to force the third-party developer to continue support.
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The company will be able to manage the third-party developer's development process.
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The company will be paid by the third-party developer to hire a new development team.
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Question 97
Single choice
A web application server is running a legacy operating system with an unpatched RCE (Remote Code Execution) vulnerability. The server cannot be upgraded until the corresponding application code is updated. Which of the following compensating controls would prevent successful exploitation?
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Question 98
Single choice
An organization's load balancers have reached end of life and have a vulnerability that will require them to be replaced. The load balancers are scheduled to be decommissioned within the next month. The management team has decided not to resolve this risk and instead allow the load balancers to remain in place until their decommission date. Which of the following risk handling techniques is the management team using?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe management team is choosing to accept the risk associated with the end-of-life load balancers that have a known vulnerability. Accepting the risk means acknowledging that the vulnerability exists but deciding not to take any further action to mitigate or transfer it. In this case, the organization has made the decision to continue using the load balancers until their scheduled decommission date, despite the known vulnerability. This approach may be taken if the risk is deemed acceptable within the organization's risk tolerance levels, and if other risk handling techniques like mitigation or transfer are not feasible or practical in the given timeframe.
Question 99
Single choice
An internal security assessor identified large gaps in a company's IT asset inventory system during a monthly asset review. The assessor is aware of an external audit that is underway. In an effort to avoid external findings, the assessor chooses not to report the gaps in the inventory system. Which of the following legal considerations is the assessor directly violating?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationDue care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches. https://www.studynotesandtheory.com/single-post/due-care-vs-due-diligence
Question 100
Single choice
A software development company needs to mitigate third-party risks to its software supply chain. Which of the following techniques should the company use in the development environment to best meet this objective?
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Performing software composition analysis
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Requiring multifactor authentication
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Establishing coding standards and monitoring for compliance
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Implementing a robust unit and regression-testing scheme
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSoftware composition analysis (SCA) is the most effective method to mitigate third-party risks in a software supply chain. SCA tools analyze the open-source and third-party components used in software development to identify known vulnerabilities, outdated dependencies, or licensing issues. By integrating SCA into the development environment, the company can proactively address risks related to external libraries or codebases that may introduce vulnerabilities into the software supply chain. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing the supply chain, particularly by identifying and addressing risks introduced by third-party software components. References: CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 ?Enterprise Security Architecture (Third-Party Risk Management) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Securing Software Supply Chains with SCA
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