Free AAPC-CPC Exam Dumps Preview

22514 = Vertebroplasty, lumbar (L5) 22515 = Each additional vertebral body (sacrum)
Vertebroplasty codes are reported per vertebral body level; modifier -50 is not applicable.

J1071 = Injection, testosterone cypionate, 1 mg.
A 200 mg dose is reported as J1071 x 200.
96372 = Therapeutic intramuscular injection.
Vaccine administration codes do not apply.

Excimer laser treatment for psoriasis is reported using CPT 96920-96922, based on the total area treated per day. Code 96920 covers treatment for less than 250 sq cm, 96921 covers 250 to 500 sq cm, and 96922 covers over 500 sq cm. Here, the provider treats 300 sq cm on the upper back plus 100 sq cm on the neck, for a total of 400 sq cm, which falls within the 250-500 sq cm range. Therefore, 96921 is the correct code for the day's treatment. The treatment should not be split into separate codes by body area.
Under CPT(R), you code the total treated area per session/day, not separate body regions with multiple base codes.
Therefore, 96921 is correct.

In ICD-10-CM coding, personal history codes are used to indicate a patient's past medical conditions that no longer exist and are not receiving active treatment, but that may influence current care or require continued monitoring.
Option A is correct because a personal history code can be reported as a first-listed code if the encounter is specifically for screening due to a past condition.
Option B is correct because personal history codes can be reported with follow-up codes to indicate that the patient is being monitored for recurrence of the past condition.
Option D is correct because a personal history code is used when the patient no longer has or is being treated for that condition, but it remains relevant to the patient's health history.
Option C is false because a personal history code is not used indiscriminately on any medical record; it is only appropriate when the past condition is relevant to the current encounter or impacts current
patient care. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason for the visit.

Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm of melanocytes, which are pigment-producing cells found primarily in the skin. It is one of the most serious forms of skin cancer and is classified under ICD-10-CM category
C43.-, malignant melanoma of skin.

Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of bone, not skin (ICD-10-CM C40-C41). Hemangioma is a benign tumor of blood vessels and is not malignant, often coded under D18.-.

Lymphoma is a malignancy of the lymphatic system, not a primary skin neoplasm (ICD-10-CM C81-C85).
Although rare cutaneous lymphomas exist, they are not the standard CPC exam answer here.

The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy, with the biopsy taken from the bronchi or bronchial tubes.

31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy, single or multiple.

Important CPC concept: When the CPT(R) descriptor is "single or multiple," you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.

31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described. The question specifies bronchial tubes and bronchial biopsies.

Therefore, A is correct.

To accurately code a pressure ulcer in ICD-10-CM, the code must reflect both the ulcer's location and stage.

L89.613 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer of the right heel.

L89.609 refers to a pressure ulcer of the heel with unspecified stage.
L89.619 refers to a pressure ulcer of the right heel with unspecified stage.
L89.603 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer of the unspecified heel.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. L89.613.

00534 reports anesthesia for procedures on a pacemaker or cardioverter-defibrillator. Modifier QZ is reported when the CRNA service is performed without medical direction by a physician. Modifier QS
indicates monitored anesthesia care.
ICD-10-CM code I49.01 reports ventricular fibrillation.

Why others are incorrect: 00520 is for anesthesia for closed chest procedures, not replacement of a pacemaker/cardioverter-defibrillator.
Modifier QY indicates medical direction of one CRNA by an anesthesiologist, which is not documented.
I48.91 reports unspecified atrial fibrillation, not ventricular fibrillation.

"Nephr/o" is the combining form meaning kidney, and "-logy" means study of. Therefore, nephrology is the medical specialty focused on the kidneys, normal kidney function, kidney diseases, and their medical management. In CPC-style terminology questions, look for the body-system root first, nephr = kidney, and then confirm the suffix. This differs from urology, which is a surgical specialty addressing the urinary tract and male reproductive system. Endocrinology relates to hormones and glands, neurology relates to the nervous system, and cardiology relates to the heart. A quick word-building check helps avoid distractors:
nephrology = kidney; cardiology = heart; neurology = nerves/brain; endocrinology = endocrine glands. On the CPC exam, recognizing common combining forms, such as nephr/o and ren/o, and suffix patterns, such as -logy, -itis, and -ectomy, is a frequent testing strategy, so anchoring on "nephr" reliably identifies the correct specialty.

Spirometry performed before and after bronchodilator is coded with 94060. That code includes the pre-and post-bronchodilator spirometry components as a single bundled service, so it already captures the "before and after" testing. The scenario also lists measurements such as flow-volume loops, but the defining element for coding is the bronchodilator responsiveness testing captured by 94060. For diagnosis, "intermittent asthma with exacerbation" maps to J45.21, mild intermittent asthma with acute exacerbation.
Code J45.901 represents unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation and is not as specific as the documented intermittent asthma. Options using 94070 do not represent spirometry pre-and post- bronchodilator testing; they are different pulmonary testing codes. CPC exam focus: choose the most
specific asthma diagnosis available and recognize that 94060 already includes the pre-and post-bronchodilator testing, so adding a separate basic spirometry code in the same session is not appropriate.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. 94060, J45.21.

The patient received IV hydration therapy with normal saline, which lasted for 1 hour and 30 minutes.

CPT(R) code 96360 is used for initial IV hydration for the first hour. This code applies to the first 31-60 minutes of hydration therapy.

CPT(R) code 96361 is used for each additional hour of IV hydration. Since the hydration lasted 1 hour and 30 minutes, 96361 should be reported once to cover the additional time after the initial hour.

Code 96365 is for initial IV infusion for therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic purposes, rather than hydration, and is not applicable in this case.

Code 96366 is used for additional therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic infusions and does not apply to hydration services.

Option A, 96360, would only cover the initial hour of hydration, missing the additional time that is appropriately coded with 96361.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 96360, 96361.

Procedure and CPT Code Selection: The patient delivered her second child vaginally after a previous cesarean delivery. This is a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).

Code 59610 is reported for routine obstetric care including antepartum care, vaginal delivery (after previous cesarean delivery), and postpartum care.

Rationale for Excluding Other Options: Code 59614 is for VBAC delivery and postpartum care only (no antepartum care).
Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery including antepartum and postpartum care, but does not apply when there is a history of previous cesarean delivery.
Code 59410 is for vaginal delivery with postpartum care only and does not include antepartum care or VBAC context.

AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines: When antepartum care, delivery, and postpartum care are all performed by the same provider in a VBAC case, report 59610.

Final Answer: 59610

The documented service is an upper GI endoscopy (EGD) with esophageal dilation performed using a guidewire and a passed dilator, "dilation performed over the guidewire." In CPT(R), when a therapeutic endoscopic service is performed, you report the therapeutic EGD code, not the separate diagnostic EGD code, because diagnostic visualization is inherent in performing the therapeutic procedure. Therefore, 43235 (diagnostic EGD) is not additionally reported. The key distinction between the dilation codes offered is the method: 43248 describes EGD with esophageal dilation using a guidewire technique, bougie/dilator passed over a guidewire, which matches the narrative: guidewire placed in the antrum, scope removed, and a dilator passed over the guidewire into the stomach area. Code 43249 generally reflects balloon dilation of the esophagus performed endoscopically; the note does not describe balloon inflation, diameter,
or balloon equipment. The hiatal hernia findings and dysphagia indication support medical necessity but do not change code selection. Thus, the correct CPT(R) code is 43248 alone.

This service is a lumbar discography at a single level, L3-L4, with injection of contrast into the intervertebral disc under fluoroscopic (C-arm) guidance while the patient is awake/able to report symptoms, which is exactly what CPT(R) 62290 describes for diagnostic discography at a lumbar level.
CPT(R) 62292 is used for discography in a different spinal region and is not supported by the "L3-4" lumbar level stated multiple times. The post-discography CT scan is referenced as planned/reviewed but is not clearly documented as performed/interpreted as part of this same physician service in the stem, and it is not part of the answer choices. For ICD-10-CM, the confirmed postoperative finding is "normal discography," but the reason for the study remains the patient's low back pain and suspected stenosis; in
outpatient/procedural settings, you code the reason for the test when the definitive suspected condition is not confirmed. Here, the stenosis was ruled out, "no evidence," so do not code spinal stenosis; report
M54.50 for low back pain. Therefore, 62290 with M54.50 is correct.

In CPT(R) Surgery Guidelines, a "separate procedure" code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service.
However, it may be reported independently if it is performed alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.
Option
A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure. Option
B. is true, as "separate procedure" codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure. Option
C. is correct because the "separate procedure" designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone. Option
D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated "separate procedures." Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a "distinct procedural service" when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a "separate procedure" that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.

The operative note describes an open radical hysterectomy for endometrial cancer with removal of the uterus, tubes, and ovaries and extensive dissection of uterine arteries, uterosacral ligaments, and cardinal ligaments, consistent with a radical procedure.
The approach is clearly abdominal/open, with a midline vertical incision and abdominal entry, not laparoscopic, so a laparoscopic radical hysterectomy code such as 58548 is not appropriate. In the answer set, 58210 represents radical abdominal hysterectomy, including bilateral total pelvic lymphadenectomy
and para-aortic lymph node sampling when performed, with or without removal of tubes and ovaries.
Because pelvic lymph node sampling/lymphadenectomy is included in 58210, 38770 is not separately reported.
Pelvic washings and extensive exploration are included in the primary surgical service and do not add separate CPT codes in this scenario.
Therefore, the correct code is 58210.

47000 = Percutaneous liver biopsy.
76942 = Ultrasound guidance.
K74.3 = Primary biliary cirrhosis.

The lesion is a benign congenital hairy nevus; therefore, benign lesion excision codes (11400-11446) are
used.

Location: thigh (trunk/arms/legs).

Excision size with margins = 4.5 cm, which supports 11406 (excision of benign lesion, trunk, arms, or legs; excised diameter over 4.0 cm).

Closure length = 5 cm, with layered closure and limited undermining, which supports intermediate repair.

12032 = Intermediate repair, trunk/extremities, 2.6-7.5 cm.

Modifier -51 applies to the secondary procedure when required by payer reporting rules.

The provider documents a history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.

Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19.
J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism.

Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current COVID-19 or post-COVID-19 conditions, which are not documented here.

Therefore, A is correct.

The patient was critically ill with hemodynamic instability, respiratory failure progression, and cardiac arrest, requiring intensive interventions, including multiple IVs, a large bolus, vasopressor infusion, resuscitation with CPR, defibrillation, medications, and ABG management.

The provider documents 77 minutes of continuous critical care time. Critical care is reported with 99291 for the first 30-74 minutes on a date of service, and 99292 for each additional 30 minutes beyond that threshold.

Because 77 minutes exceeds 74 minutes, report 99291 plus 99292. One unit of 99292 covers the additional time beyond the initial critical care window.

Do not additionally report an ED E/M code, such as 99285, on the same date for the same provider when critical care encompasses the ED evaluation and management during that time period. The critical care service is the appropriate E/M reporting.

The scenario supports that critical care criteria are met: high probability of life-threatening deterioration and active physician management.

Therefore, the correct E/M coding is 99291, 99292.

A "recent football injury" indicates an acute traumatic injury rather than a chronic or old derangement.
Acute meniscus tears are coded from the S83.2- category, tear of meniscus, current injury, not the M23.- category, which is used for derangement of meniscus due to an old tear or injury. The question specifies medial meniscus, left knee, and implies an initial encounter for the acute injury, so the correct code must include laterality and the 7th character A for initial encounter. S83.242A corresponds to other tear of medial meniscus, current injury, left knee, initial encounter. S83.232A corresponds to a complex tear of the medial meniscus, current injury, left knee, initial encounter, which is not documented in the question. M23.202 and M23.204 are derangement codes typically used for old tears or chronic conditions, not an acute recent sports injury.
CPC exam tip: "recent injury" supports S-codes; "old tear/derangement" supports M23.- codes.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C. S83.242A.

Brackets [ ] in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index are used to identify manifestation codes. These codes cannot be reported as the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced after the underlying condition.
This is a frequently tested ICD-10-CM guideline concept.

20552 = Injection(s), single or multiple trigger points, 1 or 2 muscles.

Total muscles injected = 2, trapezius and pectoralis.

The number of injections does not determine code selection; the number of muscles does.

71048 - Radiologic examination, chest; complete, minimum of 4 views.
This includes 6 views.
CPT codes are based on view ranges, not per-view billing.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
71047 - Chest X-ray, 3 views.
CPT does not allow reporting the chest X-ray code per view.

The documented service is the same-session removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis for erectile dysfunction. CPT(R) code 54416 specifically describes removal and replacement of a multi-component, inflatable, penile prosthesis and is the appropriate code for this combined procedure.

Exclusion of Other Codes: CPT(R) code 54401 represents insertion of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis only and does not include removal of an existing device; therefore, it is not appropriate. CPT(R) code 54400 represents
insertion of a non-inflatable, malleable, penile prosthesis and does not apply when an inflatable device is documented.
Code 54417 is not appropriate for this procedure.

Coding Guidelines:
Per CPT(R)/AAPC guidance, when both removal and replacement of a penile prosthesis are performed during the same operative session, a single comprehensive code is reported. CPT(R) code 54416 includes both components of the service; separate reporting of removal and insertion codes is not appropriate.

Final Answer: 54416

90960 = ESRD-related services for one full month, for patients 20 years of age and older, with 4 or more face-to-face physician or other qualified health care professional visits per month.
N18.6 = End-stage renal disease.
Z99.2 = Dependence on renal dialysis.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. 90960, N18.6, Z99.2

An Excludes1 note means "NOT CODED HERE" and indicates that the two conditions cannot be reported together because they are either mutually exclusive or one condition is inherently included in the other in that context. In practical CPC exam terms, if an Excludes1 note applies between two codes, you generally do not assign both codes on the same encounter.
This is different from Excludes2, which means the excluded condition is not part of the code, but the patient may have both conditions at the same time, so both codes may be reported if supported by documentation. NEC (Not Elsewhere Classifiable) points you to a more specific code when available; NOS
(Not Otherwise Specified) reflects insufficient detail in documentation. The question is specifically about a note that prevents reporting two conditions together. This is the hallmark definition of Excludes1 under ICD-10-CM conventions and is heavily tested on CPC exams.

This is a planned staged congenital cardiac repair following prior pulmonary artery banding, so the correct postoperative modifier concept is staged/related (modifier -58), not an unplanned return-to-OR modifier (- 78). The operative service includes removal of the pulmonary artery band and arterial switch/transposition-type repair of the great vessels, captured in the 33778/33779 family in the answer choices. The case also describes use of ECMO with central cannulation and management during the procedure, which is reported with the appropriate ECMO initiation/management codes shown as 33955 and the monitoring/assistant-related component represented by 33985 in the choices. Because this is the second stage of care and described as planned definitive repair, modifier -58 is appropriate on the reported surgical services in these answer constructs. Option D correctly pairs the staged modifier (-58) with the appropriate congenital repair and ECMO-related coding listed in the question's options.

Procedure Type and CPT(R) code Selection: The procedure described is vertebroplasty for compression fractures of C6, C7, and T1. Vertebroplasty codes are selected by spinal region and number of vertebral bodies treated.

CPT(R) code 22510 reports the initial cervicothoracic vertebral body treated by vertebroplasty.
CPT(R) code 22512 reports each additional cervicothoracic vertebral body treated.

Because three vertebral bodies are treated, report 22510 for the first vertebral body and 22512 x 2 for the
two additional vertebral bodies.

Modifier Selection:
Modifier -50 is not appended because vertebroplasty is coded per vertebral body/level, not by unilateral or bilateral approach.

AAPC and CPT(R) coding Guidelines: According to CPT(R) coding principles, vertebroplasty is reported by the number of vertebral bodies treated, with the add-on code used for each additional level. Bilateral performance does not require modifier -50.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. 22510, 22512 x 2.

44010 = Biopsy of small intestine, single or multiple.
Reported once regardless of number of biopsies.

47000 = Percutaneous liver biopsy.
76942 = Ultrasound guidance for needle placement.
K74.3 = Primary biliary cirrhosis.

The biopsy is percutaneous, so 47000 is reported. Ultrasound guidance is documented, so 76942 is also reported. Primary biliary cirrhosis is reported with K74.3.

The operative service is an amputation of the left third toe at the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. CPT(R) code 28820 describes toe amputation through the MTP joint, matching the "amputation at the metatarsophalangeal joint" language and the incision encircling the joint with removal of the toe after dividing tendons/ligaments. Modifier T2 correctly identifies the left foot, third digit. Diagnosis coding must capture the ischemic disease with gangrene plus the non-pressure chronic ulcer on the toe. In the answer set, I70.262 represents lower-extremity atherosclerosis/PVD with gangrene, left side per the option. The chronic ulcer is separately reported using the provided L97.528 non-pressure ulcer code for the left foot/ toe severity category offered by the choices. Antibiotic prophylaxis, Ancef, anesthesia type, tourniquet use/ time, and technique details support the procedure but do not change the core CPT(R)/ICD-10-CM selection. Therefore, the correct combination is 28820-T2, I70.262, L97.528.

CPT(R) code 00811: Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to the splenic flexure; diagnostic, with or without collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing.

This code is reported for anesthesia services provided during a colonoscopy that is diagnostic in nature.

ICD-10-CM code D62: Acute posthemorrhagic anemia.

This is the most accurate postoperative diagnosis. The operative report states "Anemia due to acute blood loss."

ICD-10-CM code N18.6: End stage renal disease.

This code captures the patient's documented history of ESRD.

ICD-10-CM code Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis.

This code is necessary to report the patient's dialysis status, as it affects the overall risk of the procedure.

Why the other options are incorrect: 00812: This code is for screening colonoscopy anesthesia, not diagnostic colonoscopy anesthesia.
D64.9: This code is for anemia, unspecified. D62 is more specific to the patient's condition.
K62.5: This code is for lower gastrointestinal bleeding, but the anemia is the primary diagnosis in this case.

References:
CPT(R) code 00811: Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal
to the splenic flexure
diagnostic, with or without collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing.
ICD-10-CM code D62: Acute posthemorrhagic anemia.
ICD-10-CM code N18.6: End stage renal disease.
ICD-10-CM code Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis.
AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.

24077 = Radical resection of soft tissue tumor, sarcoma, upper arm/elbow, greater than 3 cm.
Other codes represent simple or marginal excisions.
Because this is a radical resection and the tumor is 4.5 cm, 24077 is correct.

Selective catheter placement coding follows the highest-order selective catheterization achieved within a vascular family, plus additional selective placements when a different vascular family is entered. Here, access is via the femoral artery into the abdominal aorta, a nonselective aortic position, then selective advancement into the left inferior phrenic and further into the left superior suprarenal (adrenal) artery. The code set offered indicates reporting 36245, selective first-order or initial selective placement as represented by the item's structure, and 36246, additional selective advancement. Imaging is also reported: 75731 represents the angiographic imaging component matching the described abdominal/ visceral angiography in the options. Options with modifier -50 are incorrect because the study is on the left side only, not bilateral.
Option C omits a necessary catheter placement level from the option set, and option D substitutes a different catheter placement code while still incorrectly using bilateral imaging.
Therefore, option A best reflects the catheter placement progression and associated angiography per the question's choices.

For observation care spanning more than one calendar date, report initial hospital inpatient or observation care for the first day, subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care for the next day, and hospital inpatient or observation discharge day management for the discharge date.
Day 1: The patient is admitted to observation care for type 2 diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia. The provider orders multiple tests, discusses the case with the endocrinologist, and manages the patient with IV insulin and SQ insulin. This supports 99222.
Day 2: The patient remains in observation care. The provider documents 25 minutes with the patient. This supports 99231.
Day 3: The provider documents 15 minutes and discharges the patient. Discharge time is 30 minutes or less, so 99238 is reported.Code 99235 is not appropriate because it is used when the patient is admitted and discharged on the same date.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B. 99222, 99231, 99238.

In this scenario, the procedure involved the excision of a large sacral pressure ulcer with deep tissue damage that required muscle and bone removal and was followed by a layered flap closure. The coding reflects both the extent of the ulcer and the procedure performed:
1. CPT(R) code 15937: This code describes excision of a sacral pressure ulcer with ostectomy and flap closure, which matches the detailed procedure performed on the sacral ulcer.
2. ICD-10-CM Code L89.154: This code is used for a stage 4 sacral pressure ulcer, indicating the presence of deep tissue damage down to muscle and bone, which aligns with the clinical findings.

Why others are incorrect: Option
A. 15933, L89.153 and Option
B. 15931, L89.153: These codes do not adequately describe the excision with muscle and bone removal nor the stage 4 severity of the ulcer. Option
C. 15935, L89.154: Although L89.154 is correct for a stage 4 ulcer, 15935 does not account for both muscle and bone excision with flap closure. Therefore, the correct answer is
D. 15937, L89.154, accurately capturing the procedure performed and the severity of the ulcer.

This scenario describes a cytogenetic-type analysis targeting chromosomal abnormalities, performed using fluorescence-based microscopy techniques. The question explicitly states that no specific CPT code accurately describes the service, which signals that an unlisted code is required.
In CPT, 88299 is the unlisted procedure code for cytogenetic studies, used when a chromosomal/genetic laboratory procedure does not have a more specific existing CPT descriptor. The other unlisted options correspond to different laboratory sections: 84999 is an unlisted chemistry procedure, 88199 is an unlisted cytopathology procedure, and 88749 is not the correct unlisted cytogenetics code for this context as presented. CPC exam technique: Match the domain first (chromosomes = cytogenetics), then select the appropriate unlisted code within that domain when the stem says no specific CPT code exists.

Medical terms here are very literal. Peri-means around, cardi refers to the heart, and -itis means inflammation. Therefore, pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the fibrous sac surrounding the heart. "With effusion" indicates fluid accumulation in that pericardial space (pericardial effusion), which can be clinically important because significant effusion may impair heart filling and create tamponade risk, but the question is strictly asking which structure is inflamed. Distractors map to other "card-" terms: myocardium (heart muscle) would be "myocarditis," endocardium (inner lining of chambers/valves) would be "endocarditis," and blood vessels supplying the heart are coronary arteries. Inflammation of the coronary arteries would not be termed pericarditis. On CPC exams, identifying prefix + root + suffix is the fastest method: peri (around) + cardi (heart) + itis (inflammation) = pericardium inflamed.

Shave removal = CPT 11300-11313, not excision codes 11400-11646.

Face, including the nose = 11310-11313.

Lesion size 0.6-1.0 cm = 11311.

Inflamed seborrheic keratosis = L82.0.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 11311, L82.0.

ICD-10-CM has a clear hierarchy when the same substance is documented with multiple levels of severity.
Dependence represents a higher severity classification than abuse, and abuse is higher than use. When two or more of these are documented for the same substance, you generally assign only one code, selecting the highest level of severity supported: dependence over abuse, and abuse over use.
Therefore, if both use and dependence are documented, you assign dependence only, which is Option D.
Option A is incorrect because you do not code both use and abuse for the same substance; you choose the higher severity, abuse.
Option B is incorrect because if abuse and dependence are both documented, you would code dependence, not abuse.
Option C is incorrect because ICD-10-CM does not support reporting all three separately for the same substance; doing so would be duplicative and noncompliant.
CPC exam tip: Remember the hierarchy: Dependence > Abuse > Use. Pick the highest level documented.

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure, reported with 33615 according to the choices given.
The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle, which is reported with Q20.4.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the documentation provided: 33617 is not supported by the stated procedure in the choices.
Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation.
Q20.2 does not describe double inlet ventricle.
Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.4.

For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prostheses performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPT(R) codes are:

19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy performed bilaterally, indicated by modifier -50.

19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.

Rationale for excluding other options: Option A, 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for delayed insertion of a breast implant in a separate session following mastectomy. Option B, 19305-50, 19340-50: Incorrect because 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.
Option C, 19325-50: Incorrect because this code represents breast augmentation, not mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D, 19303-50, 19340-50.

This procedure is therapeutic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid by needle or catheter under CT guidance.

62329 = Spinal puncture, therapeutic, for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid by needle or catheter; with fluoroscopic or CT guidance.

The CT guidance is included in 62329 and is not reported separately with 77012.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 62329.

The epididymis is a structure attached to the testes that stores and transports sperm.

It is part of the male reproductive system, not the urinary system.

This concept falls under anatomy and physiology, a core CPC exam domain.

93925 - Duplex scan of arteries, bilateral lower extremities; complete.

This code includes both legs and should not be billed twice.

Diagnosis Codes:
M79.604 - Pain in right leg.
M79.605 - Pain in left leg.

Why others are incorrect: 93926 x 2 - 93926 describes a unilateral study and is not the appropriate code when a bilateral complete lower extremity arterial duplex study is documented.
I70.303 - Arteriosclerosis is being ruled out and is not confirmed; therefore, it is not reported.

99464 = Attendance at delivery with initial stabilization. 99465 is used when resuscitation is required. 99460 is for normal newborn care after birth.