Bob received this text message on his mobile phone: "Hello, this is Scott Smelby from the Yahoo Bank. Kindly contact me for a vital transaction on: [email protected]". Which statement below is true?
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This is a scam as everybody can get a @yahoo address, not the Yahoo customer service employees.
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This is a scam because Bob does not know Scott.
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Bob should write to [email protected] to verify the identity of Scott.
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D
This is probably a legitimate message as it comes from a respectable organization.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA public Yahoo address can be created by anybody and does not establish that its owner is a customer service employee of a bank. The sender's claimed name and organization therefore provide no authentication, and replying to the same address would only return to the person making the claim. The unsolicited transaction request is a scam.
The security administrator of ABC needs to permit Internet traffic in the host 10.0.0.2 and UDP traffic in the host 10.0.0.3. He also needs to permit all FTP traffic to the rest of the network and deny all other traffic. After he applied his ACL configuration in the router, nobody can access the ftp, and the permitted hosts cannot access the Internet. According to the next configuration, what is happening in the network? access-list 102 deny tcp any any access-list 104 permit udp host 10.0.0.3 any access-list 110 permit tcp host 10.0.0.2 eq www any access-list 108 permit tcp any eq ftp any
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The ACL 104 needs to be first because is UDP
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B
The first ACL is denying all TCP traffic and the other ACLs are being ignored by the router
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C
The ACL for FTP must be before the ACL 110
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D
The ACL 110 needs to be changed to port 80
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe intended issue is that a broad deny tcp any any rule is evaluated before the more specific TCP permit rules, so TCP traffic is denied before later rules can allow web or FTP access. ACL entries are processed top-down and stop at the first match. Strictly speaking, the configuration shown uses different ACL numbers, which represent separate Cisco ACLs, so the question is technically inconsistent as written.
During a scheduled security review in a high-tech lab in Austin, Texas, penetration tester Lucas Bennett was assessing a state government's new payroll system hosted in a private cloud. One humid afternoon, while fuzz testing the input validation logic of the TaxCalcEngine.dll module, he triggered a buffer overflow by submitting malformed taxpayer ID strings. The crash led to unintended disclosure of payroll data due to unchecked data boundaries. Lucas traced the issue to a coding oversight in a core processing module. Applying a structured analysis approach, which category best describes the vulnerability he discovered?
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Misconfigurations Weak Configurations
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D
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe buffer overflow results from unchecked input boundaries in an application module that processes taxpayer identifiers. Because the defective validation and memory handling are implemented in the software itself, the condition is an application flaw. It is not caused by an absent update, deployment configuration, or broad architectural choice described elsewhere.
During an executive-level incident review at HarborTech Industries in Baltimore, Maryland, analysts categorize key elements of a recent intrusion. They identify the organization that orchestrated the attack, document the malicious infrastructure used to reach internal systems, outline the technical approach employed to exploit weaknesses, and specify which internal business unit was affected. Within the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, which element represents the technical approach used to carry out the attack?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationIn the Diamond Model, capability represents the means used by an adversary, including the technical methods or functions applied during an intrusion. That makes it the element for the approach used to exploit weaknesses. Infrastructure is what delivers or supports the operation, while adversary and victim identify the opposing participants.
Emily, a security engineer at a Chicago-based healthcare provider, is auditing the organization ' s new cloud environment after a breach where sensitive patient records were exposed. Her investigation reveals that the root cause was the lack of encryption during data transmission between end-user devices and cloud storage. To mitigate this issue and align with HIPAA compliance requirements, Emily must prioritize addressing the correct cloud computing security risk. Which cloud computing threat should Emily address to mitigate the risk of sensitive data being exposed during transmission?
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Multi-Tenancy and Physical Security
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Incidence Analysis and Forensic Support
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Service and Data Integration
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D
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe exposure occurs while information moves between end-user devices and cloud storage, so the security boundary lies where services exchange and integrate data. Service and Data Integration includes protecting those inter-service and client-to-cloud flows. Applying encryption to the integrated transmission path prevents sensitive records from traveling as readable data.
Which advanced session hijacking technique is the most difficult to detect and mitigate?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA session replay attack reuses a captured session identifier or authenticated exchange to impersonate a valid user. Because the replay can contain values and traffic patterns previously accepted by the service, it may resemble ordinary authenticated activity. Detection and mitigation therefore require controls that recognize reuse, context changes, or stale transaction data.
During a red team exercise at Orion Tech Systems in San Jose, ethical hacker Nadia creates a campaign of fraudulent messages targeting employees. She uses compromised social media accounts to distribute bulk invitations that contain links to a fake cloud collaboration site. Several employees click the links and are prompted to log in with their corporate credentials, which Nadia captures. Although the lure appears to be a professional networking opportunity, the tactic relies on unsolicited deceptive messages delivered at scale. Which social engineering threat is Nadia simulating in this campaign?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe campaign combines spam with phishing. Spam describes the unsolicited messages distributed in bulk, while phishing describes the deceptive link and counterfeit login page used to capture corporate credentials. The professional-networking theme is merely the lure; the decisive behavior is scaled message delivery followed by credential theft through impersonated web content.
As part of a quarterly security review at EvoTrans Logistics, a global freight optimization firm, you have been brought in as a senior cybersecurity analyst to audit perimeter firewall configurations across cloud-hosted application clusters. During your investigation, you notice that TCP port 1433 is open on a virtual machine tagged as svc-node-east-14, which was provisioned by a now-defunct third-party vendor. The node is not referenced in any current infrastructure diagrams, yet live traffic logs suggest it is still handling requests during peak hours. No documentation exists regarding its service role, but you are tasked with flagging misconfigurations that may violate policy or expose critical services unnecessarily. Based on your understanding of standard port assignments, you must determine what service this port likely represents and whether its exposure warrants escalation. Which of the following services is most likely running on this port and requires immediate review?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationTCP port 1433 is the standard service port identified as ms-sql-s, representing Microsoft SQL Server client connections. An undocumented virtual machine accepting live traffic on that port may therefore expose a database service. Because database interfaces can provide access to business data and administrative functions, the unexplained external exposure requires immediate review.
You are an ethical hacker tasked with conducting an enumeration of a company's network. Given a Windows system with NetBIOS enabled, port 139 open, and file and printer sharing active, you are about to run some nbtstat commands to enumerate NetBIOS names. The company uses |Pv6 for its network. Which of the following actions should you take next?
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Use nbtstat -c to get the contents of the NetBIOS name cache
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use nbtstat -a followed by the IPv6 address of the target machine
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C
Utilize Nmap Scripting Engine (NSE) for NetBIOS enumeration
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D
Switch to an enumeration tool that supports IPv6
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe decisive constraint is that the target network uses IPv6. The listed nbtstat actions do not provide the required IPv6-based NetBIOS enumeration path, even though NetBIOS-related ports and sharing are active. The tester should therefore switch to an enumeration tool that supports IPv6 so it can address and query the target systems correctly.
Question 10
Multiple choice
Peter, a Network Administrator, has come to you looking for advice on a tool that would help him perform SNMP inquiries over the network. Which of these tools would do the SNMP enumeration he is looking for? Select the best answers.
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SolarWinds IP Network Browser
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E
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Correct answersA, B, D
ExplanationSNMPUtil can issue SNMP queries and retrieve management information from an agent. SNScan supports scanning for systems that expose SNMP, helping enumerate responsive devices. SolarWinds IP Network Browser combines IP network browsing with retrieval of SNMP-managed device information. Together, these tools directly support the requested SNMP inquiry and enumeration work.
Question 11
Single choice
Which access control mechanism allows for multiple systems to use a central authentication server (CAS) that permits users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems?
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Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
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Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSingle sign-on lets a user authenticate once through a central authentication service and then use that established identity to access multiple participating systems. The systems rely on the central authentication result instead of requiring a separate login for each resource. RBAC and DAC govern authorization decisions but do not inherently provide one-time authentication across systems.
Question 12
Single choice
What is MAC spoofing used for?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationMAC spoofing changes the source hardware address presented by a device so it appears to be another permitted system. When network access rules or filters trust MAC addresses, using an allowed address can bypass those filters. The technique changes identity information; it does not provide encryption, detection, or logging.
Question 13
Single choice
What useful information is gathered during a successful Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) enumeration?
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The two internal commands VRFY and EXPN provide a confirmation of valid users, email addresses, aliases, and mailing lists.
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Reveals the daily outgoing message limits before mailboxes are locked
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The internal command RCPT provides a list of ports open to message traffic.
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D
A list of all mail proxy server addresses used by the targeted host
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSMTP enumeration uses server commands to discover addressing information exposed by the mail service. VRFY can test whether a user or mailbox is valid, while EXPN can expand an alias or mailing list into its associated recipients when enabled. Together, they can confirm users, email addresses, aliases, and mailing lists rather than ports or sending limits.
Question 14
Single choice
Attempting an injection attack on a web server based on responses to True/False QUESTION NO:s is called which of the following?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationBlind SQLi is used when database results are not returned directly but the application still reveals whether an injected condition evaluated as true or false. An attacker asks a sequence of Boolean questions and infers data from differences in responses. That response-based inference is the defining mechanism described here.
Question 15
Single choice
Under the neon glow of a late-night fintech accelerator in Austin, Texas, blockchain security specialist Elena Vargas was performing a controlled red-team exercise for a high-profile cryptocurrency payment processor. The team had identified a merchant node accepting instant confirmations for high-value digital-asset transfers. During the simulation, the attacker first created a private transaction that credited a large sum of tokens to their own controlled wallet and immediately included it in a newly mined block. Moments later, the attacker broadcast a second conflicting transaction that spent the exact same tokens toward the merchant's address. The merchant's system, relying on a single confirmation, immediately processed and delivered the digital goods. Only after the goods were released did the attacker publish the privately held block containing the original self-credit transaction, causing the merchant's transaction to be rejected by the network. What type of blockchain attack is being demonstrated in this scenario?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA Finney attack begins with a privately mined block containing one spend, followed by a conflicting payment broadcast to a merchant that accepts an early confirmation. After receiving the goods, the attacker releases the private block, causing the merchant's conflicting transaction to be rejected. The pre-mined private block is the decisive mechanism.
Question 16
Single choice
A security researcher reviewing an organization's website source code finds references to Amazon S3 file locations. What is the most effective way to identify additional publicly accessible S3 bucket URLs used by the target?
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A
Exploit XSS to force the page to reveal the S3 links
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B
Use Google advanced search operators to enumerate S3 bucket URLs
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C
Use SQL injection to extract internal file paths from the database
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D
Perform packet sniffing to intercept internal S3 bucket names
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Correct answerB
ExplanationGoogle advanced search operators can narrow indexed results to address patterns and content associated with Amazon S3, allowing enumeration of publicly discoverable bucket URLs related to the organization. This is a passive discovery method that builds on exposed references. XSS, SQL injection, and packet sniffing target unrelated data paths and are unnecessary for indexed public locations.
Question 17
Single choice
During a security review for a healthcare provider in Denver, Colorado, Ava examines the header of a suspicious message to map the sender ' s outbound email infrastructure. Her goal is to identify which specific system on the sender ' s side processed the message so the team can understand where the transmission originated within that environment. Which detail from the email header should she examine to determine this?
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Date and time of message sent
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Authentication system used by sender ' s mail server
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Correct answerB
ExplanationEmail trace headers record the mail systems that handled a message as it traveled between servers. Examining those routing entries identifies the sender's mail server that processed and forwarded the message. A timestamp alone does not identify that system, while an IP address identifies an endpoint rather than the requested server role.
Question 18
Single choice
Which of the following is a low-tech way of gaining unauthorized access to systems?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSocial engineering gains access by manipulating people through trust, fear, urgency, authority, or helpfulness rather than defeating a system with complex technical exploits. An attacker may persuade a user to reveal credentials or grant access using ordinary communication. That human-focused method makes social engineering the low-tech choice, whereas scanning and sniffing rely directly on network tools and traffic analysis.
Question 19
Single choice
You receive an e-mail like the one shown below. When you click on the link contained in the mail, you are redirected to a website seeking you to download free Anti-Virus software. Dear valued customers, We are pleased to announce the newest version of Antivirus 2010 for Windows which will probe you with total security against the latest spyware, malware, viruses, Trojans and other online threats. Simply visit the link below and enter your antivirus code:  or you may contact us at the following address: Media Internet Consultants, Edif. Neptuno, Planta Baja, Ave. Ricardo J. Alfaro, Tumba Muerto, n/a Panama How will you determine if this is Real Anti-Virus or Fake Anti-Virus website?
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Look at the website design, if it looks professional then it is a Real Anti-Virus website
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Connect to the site using SSL, if you are successful then the website is genuine
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C
Search using the URL and Anti-Virus product name into Google and lookout for suspicious warnings against this site
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D
Download and install Anti-Virus software from this suspicious looking site, your Windows 7 will prompt you and stop the installation if the downloaded file is a malware
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E
Download and install Anti-Virus software from this suspicious looking site, your Windows 7 will prompt you and stop the installation if the downloaded file is a malware
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Correct answerC
ExplanationSearching the advertised URL together with the Anti-Virus product name can reveal independent warnings, abuse reports, and inconsistencies associated with the site before any software is executed. Professional design and SSL do not establish that an operator is trustworthy. Downloading the program would expose the computer to the very malware being investigated, and an operating system prompt is not a guarantee of safety.
Question 20
Single choice
During a routine software update at Horizon Solutions, a mid-sized IT firm in Raleigh, North Carolina, an employee downloads a file utility from a popular third-party site to streamline document processing. During the installation, the user is prompted to install an optional "productivity toolbar" and a "system optimization tool," which are bundled with vague descriptions. Shortly after, the employee notices intermittent pop-up ads, an altered browser homepage, and sluggish PC performance, though network logs also show occasional unexplained data transfers during off-hours. A security scan flags the additional programs as potentially harmful, but a deeper analysis reveals no immediate file encryption or self-replicating code. What type of threat are these unwanted programs most likely classified as?
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Potentially Unwanted Applications (PUAs)
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Correct answerA
ExplanationPotentially Unwanted Applications are programs installed alongside desired software through bundled offers, vague consent, or misleading descriptions. Toolbars and optimization utilities that change browser settings, display advertisements, degrade performance, or transfer data fit this category even without encryption or self-replication. Their bundled and unwanted behavior is the decisive distinction.
Question 21
Single choice
Jake, a professional hacker, installed spyware on a target iPhone to spy on the target user's activities. He can take complete control of the target mobile device by jailbreaking the device remotely and record audio, capture screenshots, and monitor all phone calls and SMS messages. What is the type of spyware that Jake used to infect the target device?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationTrident is associated with remotely compromising an iPhone through a jailbreak-capable exploit chain and enabling extensive surveillance of the device. The described control over audio, screenshots, calls, and messages matches that mobile spyware scenario. DroidSheep and Androrat are associated with Android-focused activity, while Zscaler is not the spyware identified by these capabilities.
Question 22
Single choice
Working as an Information Security Analyst at a technology firm, you are designing training material for employees about the dangers of session hijacking . As part of the training, you want to explain how attackers could use sidejacking to compromise user accounts. Which of the following scenarios most accurately describes a sidejacking attack?
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An attacker exploits a vulnerability in the company's network firewall to gain unauthorized access to internal systems.
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B
An attacker intercepts network traffic, captures unencrypted session cookies, and uses them to impersonate the user.
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C
An attacker uses social engineering techniques to trick an employee into revealing their password.
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D
An attacker convinces an employee to visit a malicious website that injects a harmful script into their browser.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSidejacking is session hijacking through theft of a valid session token rather than acquisition of the user's password. An attacker captures an unencrypted session cookie from network traffic and presents it to the application, which associates that token with the authenticated user. The attacker can then impersonate the user for the life of that session.
Question 23
Single choice
As part of an internal security assessment at First Union Bank in Chicago, Rachel Morgan is evaluating whether unauthorized packet capture tools are operating within the loan processing segment of the network. During traffic observation, she notices behavior suggesting that a particular host may be processing frames beyond its intended destination scope. To verify whether the network interface is accepting traffic not explicitly addressed to it, Rachel decides to transmit specially crafted packets designed to provoke an abnormal response from a system operating in promiscuous mode. Which detection technique should Rachel use to confirm the presence of a sniffer?
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DNS method by monitoring reverse DNS lookup traffic
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B
Sniffer detection using an NSE script to check for promiscuous mode
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C
Ping method by sending packets with an incorrect MAC address
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D
ARP method by sending non-broadcast ARP requests
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe ping method sends an IP packet whose destination MAC address is deliberately incorrect for the suspected host. A network interface operating normally should reject that frame before its IP stack handles the ping. A promiscuous interface may accept the frame and produce a response, revealing that it is processing traffic not addressed to its hardware address.
Question 24
Single choice
A security consultant is performing an authorized assessment of a regional healthcare provider's patient portal in Portland, Oregon. During testing, he observes that authenticated users are assigned session identifiers embedded within URL parameters after login. To evaluate the robustness of the session management implementation, he initiates multiple authentication requests in rapid succession using controlled test accounts. He then compares the issued identifiers and notices that although parts of the value remain constant, certain segments change in a predictable progression over time. By analyzing the incremental pattern across a controlled batch of issued identifiers generated within the same time window, he is able to anticipate future valid identifiers without capturing traffic from other users. Which token prediction mechanism best explains the weakness identified in this scenario?
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Weak Random Number Generator (PRNG)
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe identifiers change according to an incremental, predictable progression, allowing the next value to be derived from a batch of earlier values. This is the defining weakness of sequential tokens. Prediction does not require observing another user's traffic because the issuance order itself reveals how future session identifiers will advance.
Question 25
Single choice
If you send a TCP ACK segment to a known closed port on a firewall but it does not respond with an RST, what do you know about the firewall you are scanning?
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There is no firewall in place.
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B
This event does not tell you anything about the firewall.
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C
It is a stateful firewall
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D
It is a non-stateful firewall.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA stateful firewall tracks established TCP sessions and checks whether incoming flags correspond to an entry in its connection table. An unsolicited ACK sent to a closed port does not belong to a known session, so the firewall silently drops it instead of allowing the host to return RST. That absence of a reset reflects state-based filtering of the probe.
Question 26
Single choice
While testing a web application that relies on JavaScript-based client-side security controls, which method is most effective for bypassing these controls without triggering server-side alerts?
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A
Reverse-engineering the proprietary encryption algorithm
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B
Disabling JavaScript in the browser and submitting invalid data
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C
Injecting malicious JavaScript into the login page
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D
Using a proxy tool to intercept and modify client-side requests
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Correct answerD
ExplanationJavaScript controls run in the user's browser, so they cannot make a request immutable. An intercepting proxy captures the request after the client-side checks and allows its parameters or body to be modified before forwarding it. This directly tests whether the server independently enforces the restriction while avoiding the conspicuous browser behavior of simply disabling JavaScript and submitting malformed input.
Question 27
Single choice
This type of security test might seek to target the CEO ' s laptop or the organization ' s backup tapes to extract critical information, usernames, and passwords.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationA stolen-equipment test evaluates what an attacker could obtain by taking custody of a physical information asset. A CEO's laptop may contain credentials or sensitive files, while backup tapes may expose large amounts of stored data if their protection is inadequate. Extracting information from those acquired devices is the defining focus of this test.
Question 28
Single choice
During a red team engagement at a retail company in Atlanta, ethical hacker James crafts a session with the company ' s shopping portal and deliberately shares that session ID with an unsuspecting employee by embedding it in a link. When the employee clicks and logs in, their activity is bound to the attacker ' s pre-assigned session. Later, James retrieves the employee ' s input from that same session to demonstrate the flaw to management. Which session hijacking technique is James most likely using?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSession fixation begins with an attacker choosing or obtaining a valid session identifier and inducing the victim to authenticate while using that same identifier. The application then binds the victim's authenticated activity to the known session, allowing the attacker to reuse it afterward. The key flaw is failure to issue a fresh session identifier upon login.
Question 29
Single choice
Which of the following is a command line packet analyzer similar to GUI-based Wireshark?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTcpdump is a command-line packet capture and analysis utility. It can listen on a network interface, apply capture filters, display packet headers and fields, and save traffic for later examination, providing command-line functionality comparable to Wireshark's packet-analysis role. Nessus is a vulnerability scanner, while the other listed names do not fit the requested command-line analyzer.
Question 30
Single choice
Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine. Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA watering hole attack first identifies websites regularly visited by the intended victims and then compromises one of those trusted destinations. Joel injects a malicious script into such a site and waits for employees to visit, at which point they are redirected and malware is delivered. The victim's established browsing habit brings the target to the attack instead of requiring a direct unsolicited approach.
Question 31
Single choice
In a discreet operations room overlooking the financial district in Boston, Massachusetts, red-team leader Rebecca Kline was executing an advanced insider-threat simulation for a prominent investment bank. The team had already confirmed that the organization used strong cryptographic controls to protect highly sensitive client portfolios and transaction records. Instead of targeting the encryption algorithm itself, the simulated attackers shifted their focus toward the individual responsible for managing the master decryption keys. Through a carefully orchestrated campaign involving psychological pressure and leverage obtained from the target's personal circumstances, the attackers successfully compelled the key custodian to disclose the critical passphrase. This allowed full access to the protected data without breaking the underlying cryptographic mechanism. What type of cryptographic attack is demonstrated in this scenario?
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Adaptive chosen-plaintext attack
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B A rubber-hose attack obtains cryptographic secrets by applying coercion, intimidation, blackmail, or physical or psychological pressure to a person who knows the password or controls the key. The defining point is that the attacker does not defeat the cipher mathematically. Instead, the human key custodian becomes the attack surface. The disclosure of the master passphrase under pressure therefore makes option B the precise classification. An adaptive chosen-plaintext attack is a technical cryptanalytic method in which an attacker selects plaintexts, examines their ciphertexts, and chooses subsequent plaintexts based on earlier results. A chosen-key attack analyzes how a cryptographic system behaves under attacker-selected keys or relationships between keys. Neither involves coercing a person. A dictionary attack automatically tests likely passwords against an authentication or encryption mechanism and likewise does not fit the scenario. CEH v13 treats human weaknesses, key-management procedures, and administrative safeguards as essential components of cryptographic security. Strong algorithms cannot protect information when the corresponding key is disclosed. Appropriate countermeasures include split knowledge, dual control, separation of duties, hardware security modules, short-lived operational keys, and procedures that prevent one individual from possessing unrestricted access to critical decryption material.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA rubber-hose attack targets the person who possesses a cryptographic secret rather than the cipher. Coercion, intimidation, or psychological pressure is used to force disclosure of a key or passphrase. Because the custodian reveals the master passphrase under pressure and no cryptographic algorithm is defeated, the scenario has the defining elements of a rubber-hose attack.
Question 32
Single choice
A DDOS attack is performed at layer 7 to take down web infrastructure. Partial HTTP requests are sent to the web infrastructure or applications. Upon receiving a partial request, the target servers opens multiple connections and keeps waiting for the requests to complete. Which attack is being described here?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationSlowloris holds many HTTP connections open by sending incomplete requests and extending them slowly. The server continues reserving connection resources while waiting for each request to finish, eventually limiting its ability to serve legitimate users at the application layer.
Question 33
Single choice
A large online retail platform in Seattle, Washington, maintains continuous telemetry of inbound network flows to detect abnormal surges that may indicate a distributed denial-of-service condition. During a recent monitoring exercise, the security engineering team implemented a statistical mechanism that continuously evaluates streaming traffic metrics and mathematically determines the exact point at which normal behavior shifts into an anomalous state. Rather than comparing traffic against static baselines or clustering historical profiles, the system dynamically identifies the precise moment when distribution characteristics deviate beyond an established threshold. This approach is designed to flag sudden structural changes in traffic behavior in near real time, even if the overall traffic volume appears similar to prior peaks. Which detection technique is being applied in this scenario?
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Wavelet-Based Signal Analysis
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Sequential Change-Point Detection
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSequential change-point detection evaluates observations as traffic arrives and identifies when their statistical distribution shifts beyond a defined threshold. That mechanism targets the transition itself, so it can detect a sudden structural change even when total traffic volume resembles an earlier legitimate peak.
Question 34
Single choice
Tony wants to integrate a 128-bit symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits into a software program, which involves 32 rounds of computational operations that include substitution and permutation operations on four 32-bit word blocks using 8-variable S-boxes with 4-bit entry and 4-bit exit. Which of the following algorithms includes all the above features and can be integrated by Tony into the software program?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSerpent is a 128-bit symmetric block cipher that accepts 128-, 192-, and 256-bit keys. Its design uses 32 rounds operating on four 32-bit words, with substitution and permutation transformations built around 4-bit input and 4-bit output S-boxes. This collection of structural properties matches every cryptographic requirement in the scenario.
Question 35
Single choice
During an authorized security assessment at a municipal power distribution facility in Omaha, Nebraska, a certified ethical hacker performs passive traffic analysis between the control center and several remote substations. The tester observes structured request-response messages used to read coil status and write register values on industrial controllers. All communication occurs over TCP port 502, and the protocol does not provide built-in encryption or authentication. Based on these characteristics, which OT communication protocol is operating within this environment?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationMODBUS uses operations that read coil states and read or write controller registers, matching the observed request-response structure. Its TCP form conventionally communicates on port 502 and the basic protocol does not itself supply encryption or peer authentication. Those combined operational and transport characteristics identify MODBUS in this control network.
Question 36
Single choice
You have retrieved the raw hash values from a Windows 2000 Domain Controller. Using social engineering, you come to know that they are enforcing strong passwords. Passwords must be at least 8 characters and use 3 of the 4 categories (lowercase, uppercase, numbers, special characters). With your knowledge of likely user habits, what would be the fastest type of password cracking attack to run against these hash values?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA hybrid attack starts with likely dictionary words and applies common user-style changes such as capitalization, appended numbers, and special characters. This targets passwords that satisfy complexity rules through predictable modifications, greatly reducing the search space compared with testing every possible eight-character combination by brute force.
Question 37
Single choice
Robin, a professional hacker, targeted an organization's network to sniff all the traffic. During this process. Robin plugged in a rogue switch to an unused port in the LAN with a priority lower than any other switch in the network so that he could make it a root bridge that will later allow him to sniff all the traffic in the network. What is the attack performed by Robin in the above scenario?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationSpanning Tree Protocol selects the root bridge using bridge priority and related identifiers. By attaching a rogue switch with a more preferred priority, Robin manipulates that election so traffic paths are recalculated through his device. Abusing STP control information to become the root bridge and intercept switched traffic is an STP attack.
Question 38
Single choice
Tess King is using the nslookup command to craft queries to list all DNS information (such as Name Servers, host names, MX records, CNAME records, glue records (delegation for child Domains), zone serial number, TimeToLive (TTL) records, etc.) for a Domain. What do you think Tess King is trying to accomplish? Select the best answer.
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA DNS zone transfer requests a zone's collection of resource records from an authoritative server. When permitted, it can disclose name servers, hosts, mail exchangers, aliases, delegation data, the zone serial number, and TTL values in one operation. That broad retrieval of zone contents is more specific than ordinary DNS querying.
Question 39
Single choice
A payload causes a significant delay in response without visible output when testing an Oracle-backed application. What SQL injection technique is being used?
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A
Time-based SQL injection using WAITFOR DELAY
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Heavy query-based SQL injection
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Union-based SQL injection
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Out-of-band SQL injection
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe useful signal is a measurable delay with no returned data. In an Oracle-backed application, a heavy query can deliberately consume database processing resources so that a true condition takes longer to complete. This creates a timing side channel without visible output. WAITFOR DELAY is associated with Microsoft SQL Server, not the stated Oracle backend.
Question 40
Single choice
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAXFR is the DNS request type used for a full zone transfer. When a DNS server permits it, a secondary server or requester can receive the zone's resource records as a complete dataset. It therefore concerns replication of zone information, not encryption, tunneling, or ordinary name resolution.
Question 41
Single choice
A penetration tester is assessing an organization's cloud infrastructure and discovers misconfigured IAM policies on storage buckets. The IAM settings grant read and write permissions to any authenticated user. What is the most effective way to exploit this misconfiguration?
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A
Use leaked API keys to access the cloud storage buckets and exfiltrate data
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Execute a SQL injection attack on the organization's website to retrieve sensitive information
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C
Create a personal cloud account to authenticate and access the misconfigured storage buckets
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D
Perform a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack on the cloud management portal to gain access
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe policy grants read and write permissions to any authenticated user, not merely to members of the organization. Creating a personal cloud account satisfies that weak authentication condition and permits direct access to the misconfigured storage buckets without needing leaked keys.
Question 42
Single choice
During a penetration testing engagement at First Union Bank in Chicago, ethical hacker Rachel Morgan is assigned to assess the internal network for potential sniffing activity that could compromise sensitive customer data. While inspecting traffic in the loan processing department, Rachel observes that a workstation is receiving packets not addressed to it, raising suspicion of a sniffing tool operating in promiscuous mode. To validate her hypothesis, she prepares to conduct an active verification using a classic detection approach. Which detection technique should Rachel use to confirm the presence of a sniffer in this case?
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Sniffer detection using an NSE script to check for promiscuous mode
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DNS method by monitoring reverse DNS lookup traffic
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ARP method by sending non-broadcast ARP requests
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Ping method by sending packets with an incorrect MAC address
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Correct answerD
ExplanationThe ping method sends an IP packet whose Ethernet destination contains an incorrect MAC address. A normally configured network interface discards the frame before the IP layer can answer, but a host processing frames in promiscuous mode may pass it upward and return a ping response. Such a response supports the presence of a sniffer.
Question 43
Single choice
A digital publishing firm in Charlotte, North Carolina, noticed suspicious probing activity against its public website. To proactively assess exposure, the security team initiated a focused scan of the company's HTTP servers. The chosen tool examined server headers, identified installed web server software through file signatures and favicon analysis, checked for outdated components, and searched for potentially dangerous files and misconfigurations. The scan also supported SSL connections and generated exportable reports in multiple formats for documentation. Which vulnerability assessment tool most closely aligns with the capabilities described?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationNikto is focused on assessing HTTP servers for dangerous files, misconfigurations, outdated server components, and identifying details in headers or recognizable content. The described support for SSL scanning and report generation also fits that web-server assessment purpose. The other choices are broader vulnerability-management platforms rather than the specifically web-focused tool outlined.
Question 44
Single choice
Kevin and his friends are going through a local IT firm ' s garbage. Which of the following best describes this activity?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDumpster diving is the physical search of discarded material for information that remains useful or sensitive. By going through the firm's garbage, the group may recover documents, labels, media, account details, or organizational clues that were thrown away without secure destruction. Reconnaissance describes a broader objective, while this term names the exact collection method.
Question 45
Single choice
Suppose your company has just passed a security risk assessment exercise. The results display that the risk of the breach in the main company application is 50%. Security staff has taken some measures and implemented the necessary controls. After that, another security risk assessment was performed showing that risk has decreased to 10%. The risk threshold for the application is 20%. Which of the following risk decisions will be the best for the project in terms of its successful continuation with the most business profit?
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Introduce more controls to bring risk to 0%
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe implemented controls reduced the application's risk from 50% to 10%, placing the residual risk below the organization's 20% threshold. Because the remaining exposure is within tolerance, accepting the risk permits the project to continue without the added cost of unnecessary controls or the lost business value of avoidance.
Question 46
Single choice
The company ABC recently contracts a new accountant. The accountant will be working with the financial statements. Those financial statements need to be approved by the CFO and then they will be sent to the accountant but the CFO is worried because he wants to be sure that the information sent to the accountant was not modified once he approved it. Which of the following options can be useful to ensure the integrity of the data?
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The CFO can use a hash algorithm in the document once he approved the financial statements
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The CFO can use an excel file with a password
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The financial statements can be sent twice, one by email and the other delivered in USB and the accountant can compare both to be sure is the same document
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The document can be sent to the accountant using an exclusive USB for that document
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAfter approving the financial statements, the CFO can calculate a cryptographic hash and retain or send the trusted digest separately. The accountant recalculates the hash from the received document and compares it with the approved value. Any modification changes the digest, exposing an integrity failure; passwords and duplicate delivery do not provide the same precise check.
Question 47
Single choice
You are Sofia Patel, an ethical hacker at Nexus Security Labs, hired to test the mobile device security of Bayview University in San Francisco, California. During your assessment, you are given an Android 11-based Samsung Galaxy Tab S6 with USB debugging disabled and OEM unlock restrictions in place. To simulate an attacker attempting to gain privileged access, you install a mobile application that exploits a system vulnerability to gain root access directly on the device without requiring a PC. This allows you to bypass OS restrictions and retrieve sensitive research data. Based on this method, which Android rooting tool are you using?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationRootMaster matches the described on-device rooting method: a mobile application is installed and used to obtain root privileges directly, without connecting the tablet to a PC. The decisive conditions are application-based execution on the Android device and no requirement for external desktop assistance. Those conditions distinguish the specified tool within the choices.
Question 48
Single choice
John is an incident handler at a financial institution. His steps in a recent incident are not up to the standards of the company. John frequently forgets some steps and procedures while handling responses as they are very stressful to perform. Which of the following actions should John take to overcome this problem with the least administrative effort?
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Create an incident checklist.
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Select someone else to check the procedures.
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Increase his technical skills.
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Read the incident manual every time it occurs.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationAn incident checklist converts the required response procedure into a short, ordered set of actions that John can follow under stress. It reduces skipped steps without requiring another employee, repeated full-manual review, or a training program. Because it is reusable and simple to maintain, it addresses the problem with the least administrative effort.
Question 49
Single choice
In the process of implementing a network vulnerability assessment strategy for a tech company, the security analyst is confronted with the following scenarios: 1. A legacy application is discovered on the network, which no longer receives updates from the vendor. 2. Several systems in the network are found running outdated versions of web browsers prone to distributed attacks. 3. The network firewall has been configured using default settings and passwords. 4. Certain TCP/IP protocols used in the organization are inherently insecure. The security analyst decides to use vulnerability scanning software. Which of the following limitations of vulnerability assessment should the analyst be most cautious about in this context?
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Vulnerability scanning software is limited in its ability to perform live tests on web applications to detect errors or unexpected behavior
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Vulnerability scanning software cannot define the impact of an identified vulnerability on different business operations
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Vulnerability scanning software is limited in its ability to detect vulnerabilities at a given point in time
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Vulnerability scanning software is not immune to software engineering flaws that might lead to serious vulnerabilities being missed
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA scanner is software and can contain engineering flaws in its detection logic, signatures, or implementation. Such defects can cause serious vulnerabilities to be missed even when the network includes obsolete applications, weak defaults, outdated browsers, and insecure protocols. Scan results therefore cannot establish that every listed exposure was detected.
Question 50
Single choice
Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated by James in the above scenario?
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Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
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File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
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Network File System (NFS)
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Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
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Correct answerB
ExplanationTCP port 21 is the standard control port for File Transfer Protocol (FTP). An FTP client uses this control connection for commands and session management related to transferring files. Therefore, finding an externally accessible service listening directly on port 21 indicates FTP enumeration. BGP, NFS, and RPC use different service conventions and do not match this port.
Question 51
Single choice
Sarah, a system administrator, was alerted of potential malicious activity on the network of her company. She discovered a malicious program spread through the instant messenger application used by her team. The attacker had obtained access to one of her teammate's messenger accounts and started sending files across the contact list. Which best describes the attack scenario and what measure could have prevented it?
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Instant Messenger Applications; verifying the sender's identity before opening any files
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Insecure Patch Management; updating application software regularly
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Rogue/Decoy Applications; ensuring software is labeled as TRUSTED
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Portable Hardware Media/Removable Devices; disabling Autorun functionality
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Correct answerA
ExplanationThe malware spread through an Instant Messenger Application after an attacker took over a trusted contact's account and sent files to that account's contact list. Verifying the sender's identity through a separate trusted method before opening files would interrupt this trust abuse, even when the message appears to come from a teammate.
Question 52
Single choice
During a quarterly vulnerability management review at RedCore Motors, Priya finalizes the deployment of Nessus Essentials across the company ' s IT infrastructure. The solution is selected for its ability to support diverse technologies including operating systems, databases, web servers, and virtual environments. While preparing a training session for junior analysts, Priya asks them to identify a capability that Nessus Essentials is specifically designed to provide as part of its scanning process.
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Patch management for operating systems and third-party applications
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Checks for outdated versions of over 1,250 servers
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High-speed asset discovery
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Correct answerD
ExplanationHigh-speed asset discovery identifies active systems efficiently so they can be included in the scanning scope across the varied technologies described. Discovery is a scanning capability because vulnerabilities cannot be assessed on assets that have not first been found. Patch management is a remediation function, while the other choices do not match the emphasized capability of rapidly locating assets.
Question 53
Single choice
A penetration tester is assessing a web application that uses dynamic SQL queries for searching users in the database. The tester suspects the search input field is vulnerable to SQL injection. What is the best approach to confirm this vulnerability?
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Input DROP TABLE users; -- into the search field to test if the database query can be altered
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Inject JavaScript into the search field to test for Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
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Use a directory traversal attack to access server configuration files
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Perform a brute-force attack on the user login page to guess weak passwords
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSupplying SQL syntax in the search field tests whether user-controlled input is incorporated into a dynamic database statement without safe separation. If the DROP TABLE users; -- input alters the query structure, it confirms that the field can influence SQL execution. The other techniques test browser scripting, file paths, or password strength instead.
Question 54
Single choice
BitLocker encryption has been implemented for all the Windows-based computers in an organization. You are concerned that someone might lose their cryptographic key. Therefore, a mechanism was implemented to recover the keys from Active Directory. What is this mechanism called in cryptography?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationKey escrow places recoverable key material with a trusted repository so it can be retrieved when the normal holder loses access. Storing BitLocker recovery information in Active Directory provides that recovery path. Key renewal and certificate rollover replace aging credentials, while escrow specifically addresses controlled recovery of an existing cryptographic key.
Question 55
Single choice
A fintech startup in Austin, Texas authorizes a controlled red team engagement to evaluate the resilience of its web-based loan management platform. At the outset of the engagement, the assessment team concentrates on developing a structural understanding of the application. They examine publicly exposed endpoints, observe server responses under different navigation paths, identify accessible directories, and document the relationships between client-side scripts, form parameters, and backend behaviors. Error handling patterns and response variations are cataloged to understand how user interactions are processed across various components of the platform. The collected information is used to guide strategic planning for subsequent phases of the engagement. Within the web application hacking methodology, which phase is most accurately demonstrated in this scenario?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationReconnaissance develops an initial understanding of a web application's structure and behavior before access attempts begin. Mapping exposed endpoints, directories, scripts, parameters, backend relationships, errors, and response variations reveals the available attack surface. Because the team is collecting and organizing this information for later planning, it has not yet reached exploitation or persistence.
Question 56
Single choice
Which of the following tactics uses malicious code to redirect users' web traffic?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPharming redirects a user's web traffic toward a fraudulent destination, commonly by manipulating how a legitimate name is resolved or interpreted. The victim can enter the expected address and still reach the attacker's site. Phishing and spear-phishing instead depend on deceptive messages or links, while spimming uses instant-message spam.
Question 57
Single choice
During an authorized engagement at IronClad Financial Services in Charlotte, the red team successfully exploits a weakness and obtains administrative access to a critical server. After achieving this objective, the team installs a backdoor mechanism to ensure continued access even if the original vulnerability is remediated. The team documents this activity as part of demonstrating long-term adversary behavior within the approved scope. Within the CEH ethical hacking framework, which phase does this activity represent?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationAdministrative access has already been achieved, so the current objective is no longer initial compromise. Installing a backdoor that survives remediation preserves a route into the server for later use. Establishing that continued foothold is the maintaining access phase of the ethical hacking framework.
Question 58
Single choice
A penetration tester is assessing a company's vulnerability to advanced social engineering attacks targeting its legal department. Using detailed knowledge of mergers and legal proceedings, the tester crafts a highly credible pretext to deceive legal employees into sharing confidential case documents. What is the most effective technique?
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Send a spear-phishing email referencing specific merger details and requesting document access
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Create a fake LinkedIn profile to connect with legal employees and request document sharing
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Visit the office in person posing as a new legal intern to request document access
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Conduct a mass phishing campaign with generic legal templates attached
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSpear phishing targets a specific person or group with convincing, individualized context. Referencing confidential merger details makes the email credible to legal employees, while the document-access request directly advances the objective. A generic campaign lacks this tailored pretext, and merely creating a profile does not provide the same direct, context-rich request.
Question 59
Single choice
Fingerprinting an Operating System helps a cracker because:
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It defines exactly what software you have installed
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It opens a security-delayed window based on the port being scanned
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It doesn't depend on the patches that have been applied to fix existing security holes
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It informs the cracker of which vulnerabilities he may be able to exploit on your system
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Correct answerD
ExplanationOperating-system fingerprinting identifies the platform or OS family by analyzing characteristics of its network responses. That knowledge helps an attacker narrow the set of vulnerabilities and exploits that may apply to the target. It does not provide an exact inventory of installed applications, and patch status still matters when determining whether a particular weakness remains exploitable.
Question 60
Single choice
You are investigating unauthorized access to a web application using token-based authentication . Tokens expire after 30 minutes. Server logs show multiple failed login attempts using expired tokens within a short window, followed by successful access with a valid token . What is the most likely attack scenario?
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The attacker captured a valid token before expiration and reused it
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The attacker brute-forced the token generation algorithm
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The attacker exploited a race condition allowing expired tokens to be validated
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The attacker performed a token replay attack that confused the server
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Correct answerA
ExplanationToken expiration prevents an expired token from authorizing access, but it does not protect a valid token that has been captured. The failed uses only show that older tokens were rejected. The later success is explained by the attacker reusing a different token while it was still valid, thereby inheriting the authenticated session represented by that token.
Question 61
Single choice
During an internal audit at a financial services firm in Mumbai, ethical hacker Meera was tasked with assessing lateral movement risks within the Windows-based domain environment. While monitoring internal network traffic, she noticed a strange broadcast from a workstation trying to resolve a non-existent host. Suspecting protocol-level weakness, she responded swiftly using a pre-configured system. A few minutes later, she captured NTLMv2 hashes from several authenticated sessions across multiple departments. Later, her team successfully cracked one of the hashes offline and used the credentials to gain access to a sensitive internal reporting server. Which type of attack did Meera most likely execute?
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Internal Monologue Attack
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Correct answerB
ExplanationLLMNR/NBT-NS poisoning exploits fallback name-resolution broadcasts for hosts that cannot be resolved normally. By answering a request for the nonexistent name, the tester can present a rogue service and induce clients to perform NTLM authentication, exposing challenge-response material. Capturing NTLMv2 hashes and cracking one offline follows directly from that poisoning workflow.
Question 62
Single choice
What indicates advanced persistent threat behavior?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationLong dwell time means an intruder remains within an environment for an extended period while preserving access, gathering intelligence, and progressing toward objectives. That sustained, low-visibility presence is characteristic of an advanced persistent threat. A one-time exploit, isolated brute-force attempt, or broad malware campaign does not by itself demonstrate persistence over time.
Question 63
Single choice
A media streaming company in Los Angeles, California engages a certified ethical hacker to evaluate the resilience of its cloud-hosted infrastructure. After initial access is obtained through an exposed credential in a development repository, the tester systematically modifies logging configurations, establishes alternate access keys for persistence, and documents privilege relationships between services within the tenant. The tester's actions are focused on maintaining continued access and mapping the internal structure of the environment after initial compromise has occurred. Within the cloud attack lifecycle, which phase best represents this stage of activity?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationInitial access has already occurred through the exposed credential. Modifying logging, creating alternate access keys, maintaining persistence, and mapping privilege relationships are actions performed after compromise to extend control and understand the environment. They therefore belong to the post-exploitation phase.
Question 64
Single choice
Kevin, an encryption specialist, implemented a technique that enhances the security of keys used for encryption and authentication. Using this technique, Kevin input an initial key to an algorithm that generated an enhanced key that is resistant to brute-force attacks. What is the technique employed by Kevin to improve the security of encryption keys?
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A Public key infrastructure
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Correct answerD
ExplanationKey stretching transforms an initial key or password-derived value through deliberately costly repeated computation. The resulting key is suitable for encryption or authentication, while every brute-force guess requires the attacker to perform the same expensive work. This increases the cost of large guessing campaigns and directly provides the resistance described in the scenario.
Question 65
Single choice
Mike, a security engineer, was recently hired by BigFox Ltd. The company recently experienced disastrous DoS attacks. The management had instructed Mike to build defensive strategies for the company's IT infrastructure to thwart DoS/ DDoS attacks. Mike deployed some countermeasures to handle jamming and scrambling attacks. What is the countermeasure Mike applied to defend against jamming and scrambling attacks?
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Allow the usage of functions such as gets and strcpy
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Allow the transmission of all types of addressed packets at the ISP level
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C
Implement cognitive radios in the physical layer
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D
Disable TCP SYN cookie protection
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Correct answerC
ExplanationJamming and scrambling interfere with radio communication at the physical layer. Cognitive radios can sense conditions and adapt their operating frequency or transmission behavior, helping communication move away from interference. This directly addresses the radio-layer attack, while unsafe functions and disabled SYN protection weaken unrelated defenses.
Question 66
Single choice
Study the snort rule given below:  From the options below, choose the exploit against which this rule applies. [Image shows two Snort rules with alert messages for NETBIOS DCERPC ISystemActivator bind attempt, targeting TCP ports 135 and 445. References include CVE: CAN-2003-0352.]
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe rules detect NETBIOS DCERPC ISystemActivator bind attempts over TCP ports 135 and 445 and reference CAN-2003-0352. Those RPC activation and endpoint characteristics correspond to the vulnerability exploited by MS Blaster. The other listed malware or attacks do not match this DCERPC bind signature and port combination.
Question 67
Single choice
George is a security professional working for iTech Solutions. He was tasked with securely transferring sensitive data of the organization between industrial systems. In this process, he used a short-range communication protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. This protocol is used in devices that transfer data infrequently at a low rate in a restricted area, within a range of 10-100 m. What is the short-range wireless communication technology George employed in the above scenario?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationZigbee could be a wireless technology developed as associate open international normal to deal with the unique desires of affordable, low-power wireless IoT networks. The Zigbee normal operates on the IEEE 802.15.4 physical radio specification and operates in unauthorised bands as well as a pair of.4 GHz, 900 MHz and 868 MHz. The 802.15.4 specification upon that the Zigbee stack operates gained confirmation by the Institute of Electrical and physical science Engineers (IEEE) in 2003. The specification could be a packet-based radio protocol supposed for affordable, battery-operated devices. The protocol permits devices to speak in an exceedingly kind of network topologies and may have battery life lasting many years. The Zigbee three.0 Protocol The Zigbee protocol has been created and ratified by member corporations of the Zigbee Alliance.Over three hundred leading semiconductor makers, technology corporations, OEMs and repair corporations comprise the Zigbee Alliance membership. The Zigbee protocol was designed to supply associate easy-to-use wireless information answer characterised by secure, reliable wireless network architectures. THE ZIGBEE ADVANTAGE The Zigbee 3.0 protocol is intended to speak information through rip-roaring RF environments that area unit common in business and industrial applications. Version 3.0 builds on the prevailing Zigbee normal however unifies the market-specific application profiles to permit all devices to be wirelessly connected within the same network, no matter their market designation and performance. what is more, a Zigbee 3.0 certification theme ensures the ability of product from completely different makers. Connecting Zigbee three.0 networks to the information science domain unveil observance and management from devices like smartphones and tablets on a local area network or WAN, as well as the web, and brings verity net of Things to fruition. Zigbee protocol options include: Support for multiple network topologies like point-to-point, point-to-multipoint and mesh networks Low duty cycle - provides long battery life Low latency Direct Sequence unfold Spectrum (DSSS) Up to 65,000 nodes per network 128-bit AES encryption for secure information connections Collision avoidance, retries and acknowledgements This is another short-range communication protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. Zig-Bee is used in devices that transfer data infrequently at a low rate in a restricted area and within a range of 10-100 m.
Question 68
Single choice
An attacker exploits legacy protocols to perform advanced sniffing. Which technique is the most difficult to detect and neutralize?
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HTTP header overflow extraction
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SMTP steganographic payloads
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Covert channel via Modbus protocol manipulation
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X.25 packet fragmentation
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA covert channel hides unauthorized communication inside traffic that appears to belong to an accepted protocol. Manipulating Modbus messages can blend the concealed data with expected industrial-control exchanges, making ordinary protocol presence an unreliable indicator of abuse. Detection requires understanding subtle deviations in valid-looking Modbus behavior, which makes the channel difficult to identify and neutralize.
Question 69
Single choice
Attacker Steve targeted an organization's network with the aim of redirecting the company's web traffic to another malicious website. To achieve this goal, Steve performed DNS cache poisoning by exploiting the vulnerabilities In the DNS server software and modified the original IP address of the target website to that of a fake website. What is the technique employed by Steve to gather information for identity theft?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationPharming redirects users from an intended site to a fraudulent one by corrupting name-resolution information. Here, DNS cache poisoning replaces the legitimate site's IP address with the malicious site's address, so users can be diverted even when they request the proper name. The fraudulent destination can then collect identity information without requiring an individual pretexting conversation.
Question 70
Single choice
During a red team exercise at Apex Logistics in Denver, ethical hacker Rachel launches controlled packet injection attacks to simulate session hijacking attempts. The client ' s IT team wants a way to automatically detect such abnormal behaviors across the network in real time, instead of relying on manual analysis. They decide to deploy a monitoring system capable of flagging suspicious session activity based on predefined rules and traffic signatures. Which detection method best fits the IT team ' s requirement?
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Check for predictable session tokens
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Perform manual packet analysis using sniffing tools
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Use an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
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Correct answerD
ExplanationAn Intrusion Detection System continuously observes network activity and automatically compares traffic with configured rules, signatures, or behavioral criteria. It can therefore flag suspicious packet injection and session activity in real time across the environment. Manual packet analysis lacks the requested automation, while checking one symptom covers only a narrow condition.
Question 71
Single choice
As a security analyst for Sky Secure Inc., you are working with a client that uses a multi-cloud strategy, utilizing services from several cloud providers. The client wants to implement a system that will provide unified security management across all their cloud platforms. They need a solution that allows them to consistently enforce security policies, identify and respond to threats, and maintain visibility of all their cloud resources. Which of the following should you recommend as the best solution?
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Use a hardware-based firewall to secure all cloud resources.
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implement separate security management tools for each cloud platform.
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Use a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB).
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Rely on the built-in security features of each cloud platform.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA Cloud Access Security Broker provides a common security control point for access to cloud services across multiple providers. It supports consistent policy enforcement, centralized visibility, and identification of activity that requires a security response. Separate provider tools would fragment those functions, while a CASB addresses the client's unified multi-cloud requirement.
Question 72
Single choice
Which rootkit is characterized by its function of adding code and/or replacing some of the operating-system kernel code to obscure a backdoor on a system?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA kernel-level rootkit modifies, adds to, or replaces code running in the operating-system kernel. Because the kernel controls low-level system behavior, those changes can conceal a backdoor by filtering what higher-level tools see about files, processes, or connections. User-mode and library-level rootkits operate above this kernel boundary.
Question 73
Single choice
A national retail chain headquartered in Minneapolis, Minnesota operates a customer rewards portal supported by front-end delivery layers designed to improve performance during peak shopping periods. During an authorized security assessment, a tester submits a specially crafted request containing unusual header combinations and a modified query parameter while accessing a promotional page. Shortly afterward, other legitimate users requesting the same promotional page through standard browsers begin receiving altered content that differs from what the application normally generates. When the tester accesses the underlying origin system directly, the response reflects the expected legitimate version. After some time and additional routine traffic, the unexpected content is no longer served. Identify the attack technique that best explains this observed behavior.
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Web Cache Poisoning Attack
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SQL Injection Vulnerability
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Correct answerC
ExplanationWeb cache poisoning occurs when a crafted request causes an intermediary cache to store an attacker-influenced response under a key later used for normal requests. Other users then receive the altered cached page even though the origin still produces legitimate content. The effect disappears when the poisoned entry expires or is replaced by subsequent cache activity.
Question 74
Single choice
In Boston, Massachusetts, network administrator Daniel Carter is monitoring the IT infrastructure of New England Insurance, a prominent firm, after receiving alerts about sluggish system performance. While reviewing traffic patterns, Daniel observes an unusual volume of concurrent requests overwhelming critical servers. To validate his suspicion of a session hijacking attempt, he begins capturing and reviewing live network traffic to identify unauthorized session behaviors before escalating to the security team. What detection method should Daniel use to confirm the session hijacking attack in this scenario?
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Use an intrusion detection system (IDS)
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Check for predictable session tokens
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Perform manual packet analysis using packet sniffing tools
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Correct answerD
ExplanationManual packet analysis lets Daniel follow the live exchanges involved in suspected sessions and examine their identifiers, sequence, timing, and endpoint behavior. Packet sniffing tools preserve the traffic needed to correlate a valid session with unexpected reuse or takeover activity. This directly investigates what occurred rather than only checking token-generation quality.
Question 75
Single choice
An incident investigator asks to receive a copy of the event logs from all firewalls, proxy servers, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) on the network of an organization that has experienced a possible breach of security. When the investigator attempts to correlate the information in all of the logs, the sequence of many of the logged events do not match up. What is the most likely cause?
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The network devices are not all synchronized.
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Proper chain of custody was not observed while collecting the logs.
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The attacker altered or erased events from the logs.
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The security breach was a false positive.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationLog correlation depends on every device using a common and accurate time reference. If the firewalls, proxies, and IDS devices are not synchronized, their timestamps place related events in conflicting orders even when each device recorded its event correctly. Time synchronization is therefore necessary to reconstruct one reliable incident timeline.
Question 76
Single choice
At a Chicago-based healthcare provider, security engineer Emily reviews the migration of critical applications to a cloud service. During her evaluation, she notes that administrators can provision new servers, increase storage, and expand compute power instantly through a web dashboard without any manual involvement from the cloud provider. Which NIST-defined characteristic of cloud computing best explains this capability?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationOn-demand self-service allows a customer to provision computing capabilities such as servers, storage, and processing capacity whenever needed without requiring direct human interaction with the provider. The web dashboard provides that customer-controlled provisioning path. Measured service concerns usage tracking, while resource pooling concerns shared provider capacity.
Question 77
Single choice
A senior executive receives a personalized email titled "Annual Performance Review 2024." The email includes a malicious PDF that installs a backdoor when opened. The message appears to originate from the CEO and uses official company branding. Which phishing technique does this scenario best illustrate?
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Email clone attack with altered attachments
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Broad phishing sent to all employees
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Pharming using DNS poisoning
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Whaling attack targeting high-ranking personnel
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Correct answerD
ExplanationWhaling is a focused phishing attack aimed at executives or other high-ranking personnel. The personalized performance-review theme, apparent CEO identity, official branding, and malicious attachment are tailored to deceive a senior executive rather than a broad employee population.
Question 78
Single choice
As a Certified Ethical Hacker assessing session management vulnerabilities in a secure web application using MFA, encrypted cookies, and a WAF, which technique would most effectively exploit a session management weakness while bypassing these defenses?
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A
Utilizing Session Fixation to force a victim to use a known session ID
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Executing a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack
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Exploiting insecure deserialization vulnerabilities for code execution
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Conducting Session Sidejacking using captured session tokens
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSession fixation makes the victim authenticate while using a session ID already known to the attacker. Because the weakness concerns acceptance of that predetermined identifier, MFA can authenticate the victim and encrypted cookies can protect transport without correcting failure to regenerate the session.
Question 79
Multiple choice
Which of the following are well-known password-cracking programs?
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E
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Correct answersA, E
ExplanationL0phtcrack is a Windows password auditing and recovery program that tests password candidates against captured or obtained authentication material. John the Ripper is also a password-cracking program that supports candidate generation and hash testing. Both directly perform password recovery, unlike the networking and remote-control tools listed alongside them.
Question 80
Single choice
During a red team engagement at Apex Biotech in Dallas, ethical hacker Rachel calls the company ' s HR desk pretending to be Mark Stevens, a senior finance manager. She pressures the HR staffer by citing his "upcoming presentation for the CFO" and insists he urgently needs a copy of the updated employee benefits spreadsheet. The staffer feels compelled to help due to Rachel's convincing manner and authoritative tone. Which social engineering technique is Rachel demonstrating in this exercise?
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Reverse Social Engineering
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Correct answerB
ExplanationImpersonation occurs when an attacker pretends to be a specific trusted person to obtain information or action from another employee. Rachel adopts the identity and authority of a senior finance manager, then uses urgency to make the request persuasive. The phone is only the communication channel; the core deception is the false identity.
Question 81
Single choice
While using your bank's online servicing you notice the following string in the URL bar: " http://www.MyPersonalBank.com/account?id368940911028389 &Damount10980&Camount21" You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflects the changes. Which type of vulnerability is present on this site?
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Correct answerC
ExplanationThe application exposes transaction-related values as request parameters and accepts modified values when the request is resubmitted. Changing Damount or Camount therefore alters server-processed data through direct manipulation of web parameters. This is web parameter tampering, not cookie tampering, because the affected values are in the URL rather than a cookie.
Question 82
Single choice
During a red team assessment at a university in Chicago, Jake, a penetration tester, scans a group of older Windows workstations in the administration department. On several hosts, he notices traffic on UDP ports 137 and 138 as well as an open TCP port 139. Curious, he uses a utility to query the name table and session services. Within moments, he collects information including machine names, logged-in usernames, and available shared folders without authentication. Which enumeration method is being demonstrated in this scenario?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationNetBIOS enumeration queries the naming and session services traditionally exposed on UDP 137 and 138 and TCP 139. Those services can disclose host names, active users, sessions, and shared resources on older Windows systems. The ports and name-table query therefore identify NetBIOS enumeration more specifically than a general reference to file sharing.
Question 83
Single choice
A telecommunications provider in Toronto operates a monitoring platform that analyzes inbound traffic streams during suspected denial-of-service conditions. The system converts traffic measurements into signal components and evaluates their energy across multiple frequency ranges to distinguish abnormal traffic bursts from background network noise. Rather than focusing on traffic baselines or identifying the exact statistical breakpoint where behavior changes, the platform identifies anomalies by decomposing traffic signals into spectral components for analysis. Which DDoS detection technique is being used in this scenario?
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Sequential Change-Point Detection
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Wavelet-Based Signal Analysis
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Correct answerD
ExplanationWavelet-based signal analysis decomposes changing traffic measurements into components at multiple scales or frequency ranges. Measuring energy in those components can reveal short abnormal bursts that differ from ordinary background traffic. This mechanism matches the spectral decomposition described rather than baseline profiling or breakpoint detection.
Question 84
Single choice
Henry Is a cyber security specialist hired by BlackEye - Cyber security solutions. He was tasked with discovering the operating system (OS) of a host. He used the Unkornscan tool to discover the OS of the target system. As a result, he obtained a TTL value, which Indicates that the target system is running a Windows OS. Identify the TTL value Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationOperating-system fingerprinting compares observed network values with characteristic initial settings. In this classification, an initial TTL of 128 corresponds to Windows systems. Because routers reduce TTL as packets travel, the observed value is interpreted relative to that initial profile rather than as an arbitrary host identifier.
Question 85
Single choice
A cybersecurity team identifies suspicious outbound network traffic. Investigation reveals malware utilizing the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) to evade firewall detection. Why would attackers use this service to conceal malicious activities?
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Because BITS packets appear identical to normal Windows Update traffic.
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Because BITS operates exclusively through HTTP tunneling.
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Because BITS utilizes IP fragmentation to evade intrusion detection systems.
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Because BITS traffic uses encrypted DNS packets.
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Correct answerA
ExplanationBITS is a legitimate Windows transfer service associated with ordinary background downloads, including Windows Update activity. Malware that sends data through it can blend its transfers with expected system behavior, making the packets appear identical to normal Windows Update traffic to controls that trust or broadly permit that service. No DNS encryption or fragmentation is required.
Question 86
Single choice
A competing technology firm begins releasing products that closely mirror the design, pricing strategy, and feature roadmap of ApexDynamics Inc. An internal review reveals that detailed information about ApexDynamics' upcoming initiatives had been gradually collected through publicly available sources and external disclosures before product launch. Which footprinting-related threat does this scenario best represent?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationCorporate espionage is the deliberate collection of another organization's strategic information to obtain a competitive advantage. The rival has assembled design, pricing, and roadmap details and then used them to mirror unreleased initiatives. Publicly available fragments can support espionage when they are correlated into actionable intelligence about a competitor's plans.
Question 87
Single choice
During a simulated attack against a university ' s IT network in California, ethical hacker Sophia deploys custom malicious code onto one lab workstation. Without requiring further user interaction, she observes the malware automatically copying itself into shared folders and spreading through weak admin credentials. Within a short time, dozens of computers across multiple departments are infected with the same payload, even though only one machine was initially targeted. Which type of malware is Sophia most likely demonstrating?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationA worm self-propagates from an infected system to additional systems without requiring a user to launch each new copy. Here, the code copies itself through shared folders and weak administrative credentials, turning one compromised workstation into infections across many departments. That autonomous network spread is the defining behavior.
Question 88
Single choice
An attacker has partial root access to a mobile application. What control best prevents further exploitation?
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Secure coding and automated reviews
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Regular penetration testing
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D
Mobile Application Management (MAM)
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Correct answerD
ExplanationMobile Application Management applies administrative controls to managed applications and their business data, even when the surrounding mobile device has become less trustworthy. With partial root access already present, MAM provides the relevant containment boundary by enforcing application-level access, handling, and management policies against further misuse.
Question 89
Single choice
Arjun Mehta, a red team specialist at Sentinel Dynamics, is conducting a controlled reconnaissance assessment against the company's perimeter network. During testing, the security operations team observes that the firewall logs display several different originating systems associated with the same scanning activity. Arjun's objective is to ensure that his actual testing machine cannot be easily distinguished from other recorded entries. What technique is Arjun using in this scenario?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationAn IP Address Decoy scan mixes the tester's real origin with traffic attributed to several other systems. Firewall records then contain multiple apparent sources for the same scanning activity, making it difficult to distinguish the actual testing host from the decoys. This differs from using one forged address, because concealment depends on blending the genuine source into a group.
Question 90
Multiple choice
The network team has well-established procedures to follow for creating new rules on the firewall. This includes having approval from a manager prior to implementing any new rules. While reviewing the firewall configuration, you notice a recently implemented rule but cannot locate manager approval for it. What would be a good step to have in the procedures for a situation like this?
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Have the network team document the reason why the rule was implemented without prior manager approval.
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Monitor all traffic using the firewall rule until a manager can approve it.
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Do not roll back the firewall rule as the business may be relying upon it, but try to get manager approval as soon as possible.
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Immediately roll back the firewall rule until a manager can approve it
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Correct answersA, D
ExplanationThe unapproved rule violates the established change-control requirement. The network team should document why it was implemented so the exception has an accountable record and can be reviewed. The rule should also be rolled back immediately until approval is obtained, restoring the last authorized firewall state instead of allowing an unreviewed access path to remain active.
Question 91
Single choice
A regional healthcare provider in Minneapolis, Minnesota began experiencing intermittent connectivity issues across a newly activated access-layer network segment. Shortly after a contractor connected a diagnostic device to an unused switch port, multiple employee workstations failed to receive valid network configurations. System logs showed repeated address negotiation attempts from affected hosts, while monitoring tools recorded a rapid sequence of configuration requests originating from a single switch interface. Within minutes, additional clients on the segment encountered similar assignment failures. From a sniffing standpoint, which technique most accurately explains this behavior?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationDHCP starvation floods the address-assignment service with rapid configuration requests, commonly consuming the available lease pool. The repeated requests from one switch interface explain why legitimate clients then fail to receive valid configurations. A rogue server would instead supply clients with unauthorized network settings.
Question 92
Single choice
Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an IaaS. What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario?
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Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack
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B
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Correct answerC
ExplanationA Cloudborne attack targets persistent firmware or low-level components of a bare-metal cloud server. A malicious backdoor implanted there can survive ordinary reallocation and affect a later IaaS customer who receives the same hardware. The defining chain is firmware compromise, persistence across tenant reassignment, and subsequent exposure of a new client.
Question 93
Single choice
Jane is working as a security professional at CyberSol Inc. She was tasked with ensuring the authentication and integrity of messages being transmitted in the corporate network. To encrypt the messages, she implemented a security model in which every user in the network maintains a ring of public keys. In this model, a user needs to encrypt a message using the receiver's public key, and only the receiver can decrypt the message using their private key. What is the security model implemented by Jane to secure corporate messages?
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Transport Layer Security (TLS)
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Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA Web of Trust uses decentralized relationships among users and the public keys they maintain or endorse, rather than depending solely on a central trust authority. The described rings of public keys fit this model. A sender encrypts for the recipient's public key, and possession of the matching private key enables the recipient to decrypt the message.
Question 94
Single choice
Steve, a scientist who works in a governmental security agency, developed a technological solution to identify people based on walking patterns and implemented this approach to a physical control access. A camera captures people walking and identifies the individuals using Steve's approach. After that, people must approximate their RFID badges. Both the identifications are required to open the door. In this case, we can say:
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Although the approach has two phases, it actually implements just one authentication factor
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The solution implements the two authentication factors: physical object and physical characteristic
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The solution will have a high level of false positives
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Biological motion cannot be used to identify people
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe RFID badge is a physical object the person possesses, while the captured walking pattern is a physical characteristic of the person. Requiring both before the door opens combines two distinct authentication factors rather than two checks from the same factor category.
Question 95
Single choice
Prior to a federal audit, a cybersecurity consulting firm conducted an exposure review for a software company in Salt Lake City, Utah. The engagement focused on evaluating infrastructure reachable through the organization's publicly registered domain records. The consultants identified open service ports on several servers, examined their patch levels for outdated components, and reviewed available DNS zone information to understand how systems were presented to remote systems. Based on the activities described, what type of vulnerability scanning is being performed?
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Correct answerB
ExplanationThe review examines infrastructure reachable through public domain records and tests exposed servers, ports, patch levels, and DNS information from the perspective of a remote party. That boundary defines external scanning. Internal scanning would assess assets from within the organization's network and could expose services unavailable through the public-facing perimeter.
Question 96
Single choice
A penetration tester finds that a web application does not properly validate user input and is vulnerable to reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). What is the most appropriate approach to exploit this vulnerability?
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Perform a brute-force attack on the user login form to steal credentials
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Embed a malicious script in a URL and trick a user into clicking the link
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Inject a SQL query into the search form to attempt SQL injection
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Use directory traversal to access sensitive files on the server
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Correct answerB
ExplanationReflected XSS requires attacker-controlled script content to be included in a request and immediately returned in a page that a browser renders. Embedding the malicious script in a URL supplies that input, while persuading a user to click causes the script to execute in the application's web context. The payload is reflected rather than stored for later visitors.
Question 97
Single choice
Heather's company has decided to use a new customer relationship management tool. After performing the appropriate research, they decided to purchase a subscription to a cloud-hosted solution. The only administrative task that Heather will need to perform is the management of user accounts. The provider will take care of the hardware, operating system, and software administration including patching and monitoring. Which of the following is this type of solution?
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Correct answerA
ExplanationSoftware as a Service provides a complete hosted application to the customer. The provider operates the hardware, operating system, application software, patching, and monitoring, while Heather primarily manages users and consumes the CRM through a subscription. That responsibility split is SaaS, rather than a model where the customer administers the platform or infrastructure.
Question 98
Single choice
At a private aerospace research facility in Mesa, Arizona, an executive raises concerns after sensitive discussion points from speakerphone meetings begin surfacing externally. The device shows no indicators of active audio recording, and application permission history does not reflect recent camera or microphone authorization changes. A forensic mobile analysis identifies that an installed application has been continuously reading motion sensor output while the phone's loudspeaker is active. The collected sensor data was later transmitted to a remote server, where acoustic characteristics were reconstructed from the recorded measurements. Identify the attack technique responsible for this compromise.
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Android Camera Hijack Attack
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D
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Correct answerD
ExplanationA Spearphone attack derives speech information from motion-sensor measurements produced while a phone's loudspeaker is active. Because the application reads those sensors instead of directly recording through the microphone, it can reconstruct acoustic characteristics remotely without a new microphone or camera permission event.
Question 99
Single choice
Rebecca, a security professional, wants to authenticate employees who use web services for safe and secure communication. In this process, she employs a component of the Web Service Architecture, which is an extension of SOAP, and it can maintain the integrity and confidentiality of SOAP messages. Which of the following components of the Web Service Architecture is used by Rebecca for securing the communication?
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Correct answerD
ExplanationWS-Security extends SOAP messaging with protections that support authentication, message integrity, and confidentiality. Its security information travels with the SOAP message, enabling signatures to detect modification and encryption to protect message content. WSDL describes service interfaces, while WS-Policy expresses service requirements; neither directly applies these message-level protections.
Question 100
Single choice
Dorian Is sending a digitally signed email to Polly, with which key is Dorian signing this message and how is Poly validating It?
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Dorian is signing the message with his public key. and Poly will verify that the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's private key.
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Dorian Is signing the message with Polys public key. and Poly will verify that the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key.
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C
Dorian is signing the message with his private key. and Poly will verify that the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key.
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D
Dorian is signing the message with Polys private key. and Poly will verify mat the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key.
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Correct answerC
ExplanationDorian signs the message with his private key, which remains under his control. Polly validates the digital signature with Dorian's corresponding public key and compares the verified value with the message's computed hash. A successful match supports message integrity and attribution to the private-key holder; Polly's own keys are not used to verify Dorian's signature.
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