Free 101 Exam Dumps Preview

Which function does a caching profile provide on the BIG IP server?

Which of the following is correct regarding static parameters?

What is a common use of an iRule?

Tl SISSL prides which functionary when a web browser connects to web site using the HTTPS protocol?

Which of the following are properties of an ASM logging profile? (Choose three.)

Basic F5 IP Geo location provides which four types of client information? (Choose four.)

To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a policy containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within the policy using the ________. (Fill in)

Which security model provides protection from unknown attacks?

Comment calculator DNS error SERVFAL.
HTTP 404 and SMTP error 550 are all examples of which type of error?

Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)

Layer 2 mapping information is announced by an interface without receiving a request for the mapping first.

Which term describes this event?

An administrator needs a data a format that is support authentication against an external security domain.
The data format must format support SSO.

Which data format should the administrator choose?

Requests that do not meet the ASM security policies can:

Which of the following is a client-side action in the Visual Policy Editor that prevents external access and deletes any files created during a secure access session?

Which statement is true concerning iRule events.

Which two of the following statements about how TMOS typically manages traffic between a client and server are accurate? (Choose two.)

Which of the following violations cannot be learned by Traffic Learning?

An LTM object contains both IP address and port combinations 20.18.9.250:80 and 20.18.9.251:80 and host the same Web application.

What is this object?

A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states.

If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

In the following request, which portion represents a parameter name?

On a standalone BIG-IP ASM system, which of the following configuration is valid?

When network failover is enabled, which of the following is true?

A BIG-IP Administrator contacts F5 Support and is asked to upload a Support Snapshot.

Which command should be entered to the CLI to generate the requested file?

Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual servers and a failover occurs, by default, what happens to the connections?

What is a primary reason to choose hardware over virtual devices?

Which statement about Generic Host Servers is true?

A company recently opened a new branch site. The site needs to access the internet through a link to HQ.
The router at the branch Branch1 the router at HQ is Called core1. The computers at the branch site reside on the network 192 168 1 0/24 directly connected to Branch1 Users at HQ can already access the Internet.

What routing must be configured to achieve the required internet connectivity for the branch site?

Which four of these benefits does APM provide? (Choose four.)

Which statement is true regarding OneConnect processing?

If the BIG-IP device is NOT always located between the client and the server, it will NOT provide full optimization and security.

Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager for HTTP traffic?

Which service should be configured to allow BIG-IP devices to be externally monitored?

Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the failover cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to extern al network problems.

Which two are events that can be used to trigger GTM iRule data processing? (Choose two.)

What command sends an "Echo Request' message and expects an "Echo Reply" message?

Which two of these statements about OneConnect are true? (Choose two.)

Which of the following is not a configurable parameter data type?

Without decrypting, what portion of an HTTPS session is visible with a packet capture?

A new VLAN segment has been added to the network. Only the existing connected interface may be used.

What should the BIG-IP Administrator do to allow traffic to both the existing and the new VLAN?

Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?

After all expected HTTP data has been sent from a server to a client, the client does not close connection.
The server reaps the connection, but after that the client sends a "Keep alive" packet to the server.

Which type of packet will the server respond with?

What is the primary benefit of associating Servers with Data Centers?

In the Network Map a red diamond appears next to the three member servers in the Virtual Server's pool.
The nodes in the pool each show a green circle.

What is the most likely reason for this scenario?

To share device information with F5 technical support, a customer must either verbally share the information over the phone or copy and send the information in an Email.

Which of the following is NOT a logging option within an APM access control entry?

A server is capable of handling more connections than other servers in the same pool.

Which load distribution method should the administrator choose?

In which layer of the OSI model is the data transported in the form of a packet?

End users report widespread issues accessing multiple network resources

What tool should the BIG IP Administrator use to view the status of all virtual servers and associated resources in one place?

A user's access to resources can change based on the computer they connect from.

Where is the load balancing mode specified?

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most likely cause of the interface status shown for the SFP port?

An administrator is given the IP Address of 192.168.100.124 and needs 64 subnets.

How many hosts per network are allowed?

Which two of the following options can LTM use when all of the pool members are not available or if the pool is overloaded?

Which protocol is used for control and session establishment for streaming media?

When using only LTM in redundant pairs, a customer can load balance to multiple data centers.

Which two protocol are used for the retrieval of email? (Choose two)

A web client accesses a web application using what protocol?

What is the primary function of a certificate authority?

An administrator is currently designing the IP addressing scheme for a small company. They have been
192.
168. 100 x block of addresses with a /27 network prefix.

How many networks and hosts per network will be available when using the 27-bit network prefix?

What advantage does an active-standby configuration have over an active-active configurations?

A web administrator has added content to a web application, but users are unable to access the new content

What could be preventing them from accessing the content?

What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?

The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access management
tool has this capability. Select the features that the VPE provides. Select two.

A BIG IP Administrator reviews the Virtual Server configuration and sees the object status represented by a blue square tor an unknown status.

How should the administrator change the unknown status?

Assuming there are open connections through an active system's NAT and a failover occurs, by default, what happens to those connections?

Which of the following is correct concerning HTTP classes?

The BIG IP device is connected to the same network as a server

Which communication protocol will the BIG IP device use to discover the link layer address of the server?

Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected.

When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are asked to provide a "Failover Peer IP".

Which address is this?

Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly?

Which statement is correct concerning differences between BIG-IP ASM platforms?

An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, four self IP addresses defined and the networks shown in the exhibit.
Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their defaults.

A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination IP and port of 10.10.2.102:80.

When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?

Which three statements are true about SNATs? (Choose three.)

Which three security controls are used in an SSL transaction? (Choose three.)

What should the BIG-IP Administrator configure to perform SSL offloading when the certificate is already imported on the BIG-IP device?

An administrator is trying to debug why the 10.0.10.0/24 network is inaccessible from a certain server. The server is able to access the internet Successfully. The administrator inspects the routing table and ARP table on the affected server.
Given the terminal output shown, what could be causing this issue?

iQuery is a proprietary protocol that distributes metrics gathered from which three sources? (Choose three.)

Which of the following storage type combinations are configurable in an ASM logging profile?

What percentage of storage in a typical environment is actively used and modified?

Which of the following are correct regarding Wildcard entities? (Choose two.)

A BIG-IP Administrator needs a solution to tunnel traffic and transmit encrypted connections over the Internet using only a standard browser and common ports and protocols.

Which solution should the administrator select?

A new virtual server is being tested to replace http://myapp.mydomain.com. The original virtual server is still on use. And the new virtual server is on a different ip address.

What should be done to test this new virtual server using the fully quailed domain name for this application?

APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers? (Choose two.)

Which Datalink sublayer has the primary funcl.cn of proving node lo node flow and error control?

In the following configuration, a virtual server has the following HTTP class configuration:

A request arriving for WWW.F5.
COM will be matched by which class(es)?

Which four F5 products are on the TMOS platform? (Choose four.)

Which cookie persistence method requires the fewest configuration changes on the web servers to be implemented correctly?

in which scenario is a full proxy required?

Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address while all other settings are left at their defaults.
If a client were to initiate traffic to the NAT address, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?

The partial configuration below includes an iRule, a virtual server, and pools.

When traffic from the client at 160.10.10.10:2056 connects to the virtual server Test_VS and sends an HTTP request, what will the client's source address be translated to as the traffic is sent to the chosen pool member?

What is a benefit of configuring BIG-IP devices in active-active high availability mode?

DRAG DROP

Match these terms with their description.

In an administrator's environment, the administrator wants to inspect a high volume of SSL traffic

What should be used for this task?

What does HTTP status code 500 mean?

DRAG DROP

Match the security-related term with the correct definition.

1. OWASP Top 10

2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

3. Bot

4. Certificate

5. Content scrubbing

How does file caching affect the web application?

Which two of the following factors are often responsible for poor Web application performance? (Choose two.)

An administrator sets up a web server for a new web application.
The administrator cannot access the web server at is causing this issue?

Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data enter in Dublin.

Which of the following can be associated with an XML profile?